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CSAT 2015 PAPER WITH EXPLANATIONS

UPSC PRELIMS 2015 CSAT PAPER WITH EXPLANATIONS

 

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:

Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

Human history abounds in claims and theories confining the right of governing to a few select citizens. Exclusion of the many is justified on the ground that human beings may be rightfully segregated for the good of society and viability of the political process.

1. Which one of the following statements is least essential as a part of the argument in the above passage?

(a) Man seeks control over external things affecting him.

(b) In society, there are ‘super’ and ‘sub’human beings.

(c) Exceptions to universal citizen participation are conducive to systemic efficacy.

(d) Governing implies disparities in individual capacities.

Answer: A

The least essential statement as a part of the argument in the above passage is (a) Man seeks control over external things affecting him.

This statement is not essential to the argument because it does not address the issue of claims and theories confining the right of governing to a few select citizens. The passage is arguing that there is a history of excluding people from the political process on the grounds that they are not capable of governing themselves or that it is necessary to have a select group of elites in order to maintain order and stability. Statement (a) is more general and does not directly address this argument.

The other three statements are more essential to the argument:

  • (b) In society, there are ‘super’ and ‘sub’human beings. This statement supports the idea that there are some people who are more capable of governing than others and that it is therefore justified to exclude certain groups from the political process.
  • (c) Exceptions to universal citizen participation are conducive to systemic efficacy. This statement claims that excluding some people from the political process can actually make the system more effective.
  • (d) Governing implies disparities in individual capacities. This statement acknowledges that there are differences between people in their abilities to govern, but it does not claim that these differences justify excluding certain groups from the political process.

Overall, statement (a) is the least essential to the argument in the passage because it does not directly address the issue of claims and theories confining the right of governing to a few select citizens.

 

Passage — 2

By 2050, the Earth’s population will likely have swelled from seven to nine billion people. To fill all those stomachs — while accounting for shifting consumption patterns, climate change, and a finite amount of arable land and potable water — some experts say food production will have to double. How can we make the numbers add up? Experts say higher yielding crop varieties and more efficient farming methods will be crucial. So will waste reduction Experts urge cities to reclaim nutrients and water from recognition of waste streams and preserve farmland Poor countries, they say, can improve crop storage and packaging and rich nations could cut back on resource-intensive foods like meat.

2. Which one of the following statements best sums up the above passage?

(a) The population of the world is growing very fast.

(b) Food security is a perennial problem only in developing countries.

(c) The world does not have enough resources to meet the impending food scarcity.

(d) Food security is increasingly a collective challenge.

Answer: D

The statement that best sums up the above passage is (d) Food security is increasingly a collective challenge.

The passage discusses the challenges of feeding a growing global population in the face of climate change and limited resources. It also mentions the importance of cooperation between developed and developing countries in addressing these challenges.

The other statements are not as accurate or comprehensive. Statement (a) is true, but it does not capture the main point of the passage, which is the challenge of food security. Statement (b) is false, as food insecurity is a problem in both developed and developing countries. Statement (c) is too pessimistic, as the passage suggests that there are ways to meet the impending food scarcity.

Overall, statement (d) is the best summary of the passage because it accurately captures the main point and is comprehensive enough to include all of the important information.

 

Passage - 3

Many people in India feel that if we cut our defence expenditure on weapon-building, we can create a climate of peace with our neighbours, subsequently reducing the conflict or creating a no-war situation. People who proclaim such ideas are either the victims of war or the propagators of false argument.

3. With reference to the above passage, which of the following is the most valid assumption?

(a) Building of weapons systems by us has instigated our neighbours to wage wars against us.

(b) The greater spending on weapon-building by us would lessen the possibility of armed conflict with our neighbours.

(c) It is necessary to have state of the art weapons systems for national security.

(d) Many people in India believe that we are wasting our resources on weapon-building.

Answer: B

In the passage, it has been argued that people who propose that reduced expenditure on weapon building and defense would create a climate of peace, are proponents of false argument. This idea is based on the assumption that increased spending on weapon building lessens the possibility of armed conflict with neighbors. Hence, the most valid assumption in the above passage is that the greater spending on weapon-building by us would lessen the possibility of armed conflict with our neighbors.

 

Passage – 4

India accounts for nearly a fifth of the world's child deaths. In terms of numbers, it is the highest in the world — nearly 16 lakhs every year. Of these, more than half die in the first month of life. Officials believe that the reason for this is the absence of steps to propagate basic health practices relating to breast feeding and immunization. Also the large reproductive population of 2-6 crore remains bereft of care during the critical phases of pregnancy and post-delivery. Added to this is the prevalence of child marriages, Anaemia among young women and lack of focus on adolescent sanitation, all of which impact child death rates.

4. Which is the critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

 (a) A lot of Indians are illiterate and hence de not recognize the value of basic health practices.

(b) India has a very huge population and the government alone cannot manage public health services.

(c) Universalization and maternal health and child health services can effectively address the problem.

 (d) The nutrition of women in child bearing age does not affect child mortality rate

Answer: C

The critical inference that can be made from the above passage is (c) Universalization and maternal health and child health services can effectively address the problem.

The passage states that India accounts for nearly a fifth of the world's child deaths, and that the reasons for this include the absence of steps to propagate basic health practices relating to breastfeeding and immunization, the lack of care for the large reproductive population of 2-6 crore during the critical phases of pregnancy and post-delivery, and the prevalence of child marriages, anemia among young women, and lack of focus on adolescent sanitation.

All of these factors can be addressed through universalization of maternal health and child health services. This would ensure that all women and children have access to high-quality care, regardless of their income or location.

The other inferences are not supported by the passage:

  • (a) A lot of Indians are illiterate and hence de not recognize the value of basic health practices. The passage does not mention illiteracy, and it is possible that many illiterate people are aware of the importance of basic health practices.
  • (b) India has a very huge population and the government alone cannot manage public health services. The government of India has a number of programs in place to improve maternal and child health, and it is possible to universalize these services with the help of private and non-profit organizations.
  • (d) The nutrition of women in child bearing age does not affect child mortality rate. The passage states that anemia among young women is a factor in child mortality. Anemia is a nutritional problem, so the nutrition of women in child bearing age does affect child mortality rate.

Therefore, the critical inference that can be made from the above passage is that universalization of maternal health and child health services can effectively address the problem of child mortality in India.

 

Passage -5

Foods travel more than the people who eat them. Grocery stores and supermarkets are loaded with preserved and processed foods. This, however, often leads to environmental threats, such as pollution generated by long distance food transportation and wastage of food during processing and transportation, destruction of forests, reduced nutritional rain content, and increased demand for preservation and packaging. Food insecurity also increases as the produce comes from regions that are not feeding their own population properly. With reference to the above passage,

5. Which of the following statements is/are true?

  1. Consuming regionally grown food and not depending on long travelled food is a part of eco-friendly behaviour.
  2. Food processing industry puts a burden on our natural resources.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2only

(c) Both1and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

The statements are both true.

Statement 1

Consuming regionally grown food and not depending on long travelled food is a part of eco-friendly behaviour. This is because long distance food transportation requires a lot of energy, which produces greenhouse gases. It also contributes to air pollution.

Statement 2

Food processing industry puts a burden on our natural resources. This is because food processing requires a lot of water and energy. It also produces waste, which can pollute the environment.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

Passage – 6

 I must say that, beyond occasionally exposing me to laughter, my constitutional shyness has been of no disadvantage whatever. In fact I can see that, on the contrary, it has been all to my advantage. My hesitancy in speech, which was once an annoyance, is now a pleasure. Its greatest benefit has been that it has taught me the economy of words. I have naturally formed the habit of restraining my thoughts. And I can now give myself the certificate that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes my tongue or pen. I do not recollect ever having had to regret anything in my speech or writing. I have thus been spared many a mishap and waste of time. Experience has taught me that silence is part of the spiritual discipline of a votary of truth. Proneness to exaggerate, to suppress or modify the truth, wittingly or unwittingly, is a natural weakness of man, and silence is necessary in order to surmount it. A man of few words will rarely be thoughtless in his speech; he will measure every word. We find 30 many people impatient to talk. There is no chairman of a meeting who is net pestered with notes for permission to speak. And whenever the permission is given the speaker generally exceeds the time-limit, asks for more time, and keeps on talking without permission. All this talking can hardly be said to be of any benefit to the world. It is so much waste of time. My shyness has been in reality my shield and buckler. It has allowed me to grow. It has helped me in my discernment of truth. The author says that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes his tongue or pen.

6. Which one of the following is not a valid reason for this?

 (a) He has no intention to waste his time.

(b) He believes in the economy of words.

(c) He believes in restraining his thoughts.

(d) He has hesitancy in his speech

Answer: A

The passage states that the author's hesitancy in speech has taught him the economy of words and to restrain his thoughts. This means that he is careful about what he says and writes, and he avoids saying or writing things that are thoughtless.

However, the passage does not say that the author's intention is to not waste his time. While this may be a consequence of his careful speech and writing, it is not the primary reason for it.

The other three options are all valid reasons why the author's thoughtless words rarely escape his tongue or pen.

7. The most appropriate reason for the author to be spared many a mishap is that

(a) he hardly utters or writes a thoughtless word.

(b) he is a man of immense patience.

(c) he believes that he is a spiritual person.

(d) he is a votary of truth.

Answer: A

The most appropriate reason for the author to be spared many a mishap is that he hardly utters or writes a thoughtless word.

The passage states that the author's hesitancy in speech has taught him the economy of words and to restrain his thoughts. This means that he is careful about what he says and writes, and he avoids saying or writing things that are thoughtless.

This is the most appropriate reason for the author to be spared many a mishap because it is the only reason that is directly related to his speech and writing. The other options are not directly related to his speech and writing, and they do not explain why he would be spared many a mishap.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

8. For the author, silence is necessary in order to surmount

(a) constitutional shyness.

(b) hesitancy in speech.

(c) suppression of thoughts.

(d) tendency to overstate

Answer: D

The passage states that "silence is part of the spiritual discipline of a votary of truth" and that "proneness to exaggerate, to suppress or modify the truth, wittingly or unwittingly, is a natural weakness of man, and silence is necessary in order to surmount it."

This means that the author believes that silence is necessary in order to overcome the tendency to overstate or misrepresent the truth.

The other options are not supported by the passage.

  • Constitutional shyness is not mentioned in the passage.
  • Hesitancy in speech is a symptom of constitutional shyness, but it is not the same thing.
  • Suppression of thoughts is not mentioned in the passage, and it is not clear how silence would help to overcome it.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

9. Twelve people form a club. By picking lots, one of them will host a dinner for all once in a month. The number of dinners a particular member has to host in one year is

(a) One

(b) Zero

(c) Three

(d) Cannot be predicted

Answer: D

If the dinner hosting is done by lottery, then it is true that the number of dinners a particular person will host in a year cannot be determined. It is possible that a person could host several dinners in one year, or none at all.

So in that case, the answer would be (d).

 10. An automobile owner reduced his monthly petrol consumption when the prices went up. The price-consumption relationship is as follows: 40 50 60 75 Monthly consumption (in liters) 60 48 40 32 Price (in Rs per liter) If the price goes up to Rs 80 per liter, his expected consumption (in liters) will be

(a) 30

(b) 28

(c) 26

 (d) 24

Answer: A

Expenditure in every condition = Price × Consumption

Expenditure in the first condition = 40 × 60 = Rs 2400 Expenditure in the second condition = 50 × 48 = Rs 2400 Expenditure in the third condition = 60 × 40 = Rs 2400 Expenditure in the fourth condition = 75 × 32 = Rs 2400

So, if the price goes up to Rs 80 per litre, the expenditure will still be Rs 2400, as you correctly calculated:

Let the consumption of petrol be x, then:

80 × x = 2400 x = 2400 / 80 x = 30 liters

Therefore, when the price goes up to Rs 80 per litre, the expected consumption is indeed 30 liters, and the expenditure remains the same at Rs 2400.

11. Consider the figures given below:
 

Answer: A

To see why, let's look at the other options:

  • (b) B is incorrect because it would make the triangle AVB isosceles, which is not the case.
  • (c) C is incorrect because it would make the triangle AVB degenerate, which is also not the case.
  • (d) D is incorrect because it would make the triangle AVB invalid, which is not the case.

The only option that makes the triangle AVB valid and not isosceles or degenerate is (a) A.

 

Here is a diagram of the triangle with the correct answer filled in:

     A

     / \

    /   \

   /     \

  V       B

 

12. Consider the following matrix:
 

3

8

10

2

?

1

6

56

90

2

20

0

What is the missing number at ‘? in the matrix?

(a) 5

(b) 0

(c) 7

(d) 3

Answer: A

Here is a breakdown of your solution:

In each column, the number in the second row is the product of the number in the first row and its predecessor.

This is a good observation. It tells us that there is a relationship between the numbers in the first and second rows of each column. This relationship is that the number in the second row is equal to the product of the number in the first row and its predecessor.

6 = 3 x 2 56 = 8 x 7 90 = 10 x 9 2 = 2 x 1 0 = 1 x 0 Similarly, 20 = 5 x 4

You have provided several examples to support your observation. These examples show that the relationship between the numbers in the first and second rows of each column is consistent.

Therefore, 5 will come in place of the question mark. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Based on your observation and the examples you have provided, it is clear that the missing number in the matrix is 5. This is because 5 is the predecessor of 20, and the product of 5 and 4 is 20.

Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

 
13. What is the missing number X of the series?

7, X, 21, 31, 437

(a) 11

(b) 12

(c) 13

(d) 14

Answer: C

The missing number in the series 7, X, 21, 31, 437 is 13.

The series is increasing by 4, then 6, then 8, and so on. The next number in the series should be 4 more than 31, which is 35. However, the actual next number in the series is 437. This is because the series is also multiplying by 7 every two numbers.

Therefore, the missing number is 13, which is 7 times 21 and 4 less than 31.

Here is a breakdown of the series:

7

7 * 2 + 4 = 13

7 * 3 + 6 = 21

7 * 4 + 8 = 31

7 * 6 + 10 = 437

14. Four cardboard pieces of specific shapes are shown in the following figure:
 
 
 
 
 
 

Answer: D

The image shows four cardboard pieces of specific shapes. The four pieces can be joined together to form a square.

To see why, let's look at the pieces individually. The first piece is a square. The second piece is a right triangle with one leg equal to the side of the square. The third piece is a right triangle with the other leg equal to the side of the square. The fourth piece is a trapezoid with the two shorter bases equal to the sides of the square.

When the four pieces are joined together, the two right triangles form a square, and the trapezoid fills in the remaining gap.

Here is a diagram of the four pieces joined together to form a square:

    [Square]

   /    \

  /      \

 [Square]  [Square]

Therefore, the answer to the question is (d).

 
15. In a test, a candidate attempted only 8 questions and secured 50% marks in each of the questions. If he obtained a total of 40% in the test and all questions in the test carried equal marks, how many questions were there in the test?

(a) 8

(b) 10

 (c) 15

(d) 16

Answer: B

Let the total number of questions in the test be x. Since the candidate attempted 8 questions and secured 50% marks in each of the questions, the marks obtained by him for the attempted questions is (8 * 50) = 400.

Since the total marks obtained by the candidate is 40% of x, we have 40 * x = 400. Solving for x, we get x = 10.

Therefore, the total number of questions in the test is 10.

 
16. A father is nine times as old as his son and the mother is eight times as old as the son. The sum of the father’s and the mother’s age is 51 years, what is the age of the son?

 (a) 7 years

 (b) 5 years

(c) 4 years

(d) 3years

Answer: D

 

Let the son's age be x.

Then, father's age = 9x and mother's age = 8x

Sum of father’s and the mother’s age = 51 years

⇒ 9x + 8x = 51

 ⇒ 17x = 51 ⇒

x = 3

 Therefore, son's age = 3 years.

Correct the answer is 3 years.

 

17. Four persons A, B, C and D consisting of two married couples are in a group. Both the women are shorter than their respective husbands. A is the tallest among the four. C is taller than B. D is B’s brother. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) All four have family ties.

(b) B is the shortest: among the four.

(c) C is taller than D.

(d) A is B's husband.

Answer: C

  • A is the tallest among the four, implying that A is male.
  • D is B's brother, implying that D is also male.
  • Both the women are shorter than their respective husbands, implying that D is married to C, as B and C are the two females. This also implies that A is married to B.
  • C is taller than B.
  • Since D is the husband of C, he must also be taller than C, who is taller than B. Therefore, C is not taller than D.

Therefore, the statement "C is taller than D" is not correct. The other three statements are all correct.

All four people have family ties: A is married to B, and C is married to D. B is the shortest among the four, since she is a woman and both women are shorter than their respective husbands. A is not B's husband, since A is married to C.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

18. Consider the following statements:
  1. A man had a wife, two sons and two daughters in his family.
  2. The daughters were invited to a feast and the male members of the family went out to take part in a picnic.
  3. The man’s father did not return from his work.

Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Only the man’s wife was left at home.

(b) It is likely that the man’s wife was left at home.

(c) None was left at home.

(d) More than one person was left at home

Answer: B

Let's analyse the given statements:

  1. A man had a wife, two sons, and two daughters in his family.
    • This statement tells us about the composition of the man's family.
  2. The daughters were invited to a feast, and the male members of the family went out to take part in a picnic.
    • This statement tells us that the daughters and male members (which include the man and his two sons) were not at home.
  3. The man’s father did not return from his work.
    • This statement implies that the man's father was not at home either.

Now, let's consider the possible scenarios:

  • The man's wife could have gone with the daughters to the feast or joined the male members on the picnic. There is no information provided to determine where she is.

Given the information provided, we cannot definitively conclude where the man's wife is. Therefore, the correct statement is (b) "It is likely that the man’s wife was left at home."

19. Geeta: Naresh has become a better boxer since he started meditation.

Radha: Impossible. A boxer's most important asset is his aggressiveness.

Radha’s statement reflects her belief that

(a) Meditation tends to make a person less aggressive.

(b) Meditation has little or no effect on the person who practices it.

(c) Naresh was a poor boxer earlier because he was not aggressive enough.

 (d) Naresh would not have taken to meditation as he was a boxer.

Answer: A

According to Radha, aggressiveness is the key in boxing (which is true) and if Naresh started meditation he would become less aggressive. Therefore, Radha believes that meditation tends to make a person less aggressive.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

20. All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win eat a well-balanced diet; therefore all athletes who do not eat a well-balanced diet are bad athletes.

The best conclusion from this statement is that

(a) No bad athlete wants to win.

 (b) No athlete who does not eat a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.

 (c) Every athlete who eats a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.

(d) All athletes who want to win are good athletes.

Answer: B

The best conclusion from the statement "All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win eat a well-balanced diet; therefore all athletes who do not eat a well-balanced diet are bad athletes" is (b) No athlete who does not eat a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.

This conclusion follows logically from the given premises. We know that all good athletes want to win and that all athletes who want to win eat a well-balanced diet. This means that eating a well-balanced diet is a necessary condition for being a good athlete. Therefore, any athlete who does not eat a well-balanced diet cannot be a good athlete.

The other conclusions are not necessarily true.

  • (a) Not all bad athletes want to win. Some bad athletes may not be interested in winning, or they may not believe that they have the ability to win.
  • (c) Not every athlete who eats a well-balanced diet is a good athlete. Some athletes may eat a well-balanced diet but still not be good athletes because they lack other important qualities, such as natural talent or hard work.
  • (d) Not all athletes who want to win are good athletes. Some athletes may want to win but not be good enough to win.

Therefore, the best conclusion from the given statement is (b).

 

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:

Read the following seven passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage — 1

The richer States have a responsibility to cut down carbon emissions and promote clean energy investments. These are the States that got electricity, grew faster and now have high per capita income, making them capable of sharing India’s burden of becoming eco-friendly. Delhi, for example, can help by generating its own clean electricity using solar rooftop panels or even help poor States finance their clean is no secret that State Electricity Boards, which control 95% of the distribution network, are neck-deep in losses energy projects. It these losses further discourage State utilities from adopting renewable energy as it is more expensive than fossil fuels.

21. Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?

(a)The richer States must lead in the production and adoption of renewable energy.

(b) The poor States always have to depend on rich States for electricity.

(c) The State improve their finances by undertaking Electricity Boards can clean energy projects.

 (d) The high economic disparity between the rich and poor States is the major cause of high carbon emissions in India

Answer: A

The most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the passage is: (a) The richer States must lead in the production and adoption of renewable energy.

The passage states that "The richer States have a responsibility to cut down carbon emissions and promote clean energy investments." This is because they are the states that have benefited the most from economic development, and they have the resources to invest in clean energy.

The passage also states that "Delhi, for example, can help by generating its own clean electricity using solar rooftop panels or even help poor States finance their clean energy projects." This suggests that the richer states can play a leading role in the transition to clean energy, both by producing their own clean electricity and by helping the poorer states to do the same.

The other options are not necessarily true.

  • (b) The poor states do not always have to depend on the rich states for electricity. They can develop their own renewable energy resources, or they can purchase electricity from the richer states.
  • (c) The State Electricity Boards may be able to improve their finances by undertaking clean energy projects, but this is not guaranteed. Clean energy projects can be expensive to develop, and they may not generate enough revenue to cover the costs of construction and operation.
  • (d) The high economic disparity between the rich and poor states is not the only cause of high carbon emissions in India. Other factors, such as population growth and urbanization, also contribute to high carbon emissions.

Therefore, the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the passage is (a).

 

Passage - 2

Set against a rural backdrop, ‘Stench of kerosene’ is the story of a couple, Guleri and Manak, who have been happily married for several years but do not have a child. Manak’s mother is desperate to have a grandchild to carry on the family name. Hence, she gets Manak remarried in Guleri's absence. Manak, who acts as a reluctant but passive spectator, is meanwhile, informed by a friend that Guleri, on hearing about her husband's second marriage, poured kerosene on her clothes and set fire to them. Manak is heartbroken and begins to live as if he were a dead man. When his second wife delivers a son, Manak stares at the child for a long time and blurts out, “Take him away! He stinks of kerosene.”

22. This is a sensitive issue-based story which tries to sensitise the readers about

(a) Male chauvinism and infidelity

 (b) Love and betrayal

(c) Lack of legal safeguards for women

 (d) Influence of patriarchal mindset

Answer: D

The story revolves around the influence of patriarchal values and the pressure on the husband (Manak) to have a male child to carry on the family name. Manak's mother's desperation to have a grandchild leads to him being remarried without his first wife's consent, and this ultimately results in a tragic and devastating outcome for Guleri. The story highlights the patriarchal norms and expectations that put immense pressure on individuals and lead to tragic consequences.

Passage - 3

The ultimate aim of government is not to rule or control by fear, nor to demand obedience, but conversely, to free every man from fear, that he may live in all possible security. In other words, to strengthen his natural right to exist and work without injury to himself or others. The object of government is not to change men from rational beings into beasts or puppets. It should enable them to develop their minds and bodies in security, and to employ their reason unshackled.

23. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

 (a) The true aim of government is to secure the citizens their social and political freedom.

(b) The primary concern of government is to provide absolute social security to all its citizens.

 (c) The best government is the one that allows the citizens to enjoy absolute liberty in all matters of life.

(d) The best government is the one that provides absolute physical security to the people of the country.

Answer: A

The most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that (a) The true aim of government is to secure the citizens their social and political freedom.

The passage argues that the true aim of government is to free every man from fear, that he may live in all possible security. This means that the government should protect the citizens from harm and allow them to live their lives without fear of oppression or persecution. The passage also mentions that the government should enable the citizens to develop their minds and bodies in security, and to employ their reason unshackled. This implies that the government should promote freedom of thought and expression, and should not interfere in the lives of the citizens unless it is necessary to protect them from harm.

The other inferences are not necessarily true.

  • (b) The primary concern of government is not necessarily to provide absolute social security to all its citizens. The government may also have other concerns, such as promoting economic growth or protecting national security.
  • (c) The best government is not necessarily the one that allows the citizens to enjoy absolute liberty in all matters of life. The government may need to restrict certain freedoms in order to protect the citizens from harm or to promote the common good.
  • (d) The best government is not necessarily the one that provides absolute physical security to the people of the country. The government may also need to focus on other priorities, such as promoting economic growth or social justice.

Therefore, the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that the true aim of government is to secure the citizens their social and political freedom.

 

Passage – 4

Our municipal corporations are understaffed. The issue of skills and competencies of the staff poses an even greater challenge. Urban services delivery and infrastructure are complex to plan and execute. They require a high degree of specialization and professionalism. The current framework within which municipal employees, including senior management, are recruited does not adequately factor in the technical and managerial competencies required. Cadre and recruitment rules only specify the bare minimum in academic qualifications. There is no mention of managerial or technical competencies, or of relevant work experience. This is the case with most municipal corporations. They also suffer from weak organisation design and structure.

24. Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?

(a) The task of providing urban services is a complex issue which requires the organizational expansion of municipal bodies all over the country.

(b) Our cities can provide better quality of life if our local government bodies have adequate staff’ with required skills and competencies.

(c) Lack of skilled staff is due to the absence of institutions which offer the requisite skills in city management.

(d) Our country is not taking advantage of the demographic dividend to manage the problems associated with rapid urbanization.

Answer: B

The most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the passage is that (b) Our cities can provide better quality of life if our local government bodies have adequate staff with required skills and competencies.

The passage argues that the current framework within which municipal employees are recruited does not adequately factor in the technical and managerial competencies required. This means that many municipal employees may not have the skills and knowledge necessary to effectively deliver urban services. The passage also mentions that the quality of life in our cities can be improved if our local government bodies have adequate staff with the required skills and competencies.

The other assumptions are not necessarily true.

  • (a) The task of providing urban services is a complex issue, but it does not necessarily require the organizational expansion of municipal bodies all over the country. It is possible to improve the quality of urban services without expanding the size of municipal governments.
  • (c) Lack of skilled staff may be due to a number of factors, including the absence of institutions which offer the requisite skills in city management. However, the passage does not explicitly state this.
  • (d) The passage does not provide any evidence to support the assumption that our country is not taking advantage of the demographic dividend to manage the problems associated with rapid urbanization.

Therefore, the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the passage is that our cities can provide better quality of life if our local government bodies have adequate staff with the required skills and competencies.

 

Passage -5

Flamingos in large flocks in the wild are social and extremely loyal. They perform group mating dances. Parents are very fond of their chicks, gathering them into créches for protection while both males and females fly off to search for food.

25. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?

(a) Mass nesting in all species of birds is essential to ensure complete survival of their offspring.

(b) Only birds have the capacity to develop social behaviour and thus can do mass nesting to raise their chicks in safety,

 (c) Social behaviour in some species of birds increases the odds of survival in an unsafe world.

(d) All species of birds set up créches for their chicks to teach them social behaviour and loyalty

Answer: C

The passage describes the social behavior of flamingos and how it helps them to survive in the wild. Flamingos gather in large flocks, perform group mating dances, and parents work together to protect their chicks. This social behavior helps flamingos to find food, protect themselves from predators, and raise their young.

The other options are not necessarily true.

  • (a) Mass nesting is not essential for all species of birds. Some birds, such as eagles and owls, nest alone.
  • (b) Only birds have the capacity to develop social behavior, but not all species of birds do.
  • (d) Not all species of birds set up créches for their chicks.

Therefore, the most logical corollary to the passage is that social behavior in some species of birds increases the odds of survival in an unsafe world.

 

Passage - 6

Vast numbers of Indian citizens without bank accounts live in rural areas, are financially - and functionally illiterate, and have little experience with technology. A research study was conducted in a particular area in which electronic wage payments in Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) are meant to go directly to the poor. It was observed that recipients often assume that the village leader needs to mediate the process, as was the case under the previous paper-based system. Among households under this research study area who claimed to have at least one bank account, over a third reported still receiving MGNREGS wages in cash directly from a village leader.

26. What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?

(a) MGNREGS should be extended only to those who have a bank account.

 (b) The paper-based system of payments is more efficient than electronic payment in the present scenario.

(c) The goal of electronic wage payments was not to eliminate mediation by village leaders.

(d) It is essential to provide financial literacy to the rural poor.

Answer: D

The passage describes the challenges of implementing electronic wage payments in the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) in rural India. Many recipients of MGNREGS wages are unaware of how to use electronic banking services, and some still prefer to receive their wages in cash from village leaders. This suggests that there is a need to provide financial literacy to the rural poor so that they can better understand and use electronic banking services.

The other options are not necessarily true or supported by the passage.

  • (a) The passage does not suggest that MGNREGS should be extended only to those who have a bank account.
  • (b) The passage does not suggest that the paper-based system of payments is more efficient than electronic payment. In fact, the passage suggests that electronic payments could be more efficient if the rural poor were more financially literate.
  • (c) The passage does not explicitly state the goal of electronic wage payments. However, it is reasonable to infer that one goal was to eliminate mediation by village leaders. However, the passage also suggests that this goal has not been fully achieved, due to the lack of financial literacy among the rural poor.

Therefore, the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the passage is that it is essential to provide financial literacy to the rural poor.

 

Passage - 7

Individuals, groups and leaders who promote human development operate under strong institutional, structural and political constraints that affect policy ‘options. But experience suggests broad principles for shaping an appropriate agenda for human development. One important finding from several decades of human development experience is that focusing exclusively on economic growth is problematic. While we have good knowledge about how to advance health and education, the causes of growth are much less certain and growth is often elusive. Further, an unbalanced emphasis on often associated with growth is negative environmental adverse consequences and distributional effects. The experience of China, with its impressive growth record, reflects these broader concerns and underlines the importance of balanced that investments in the non-income aspects of human approaches emphasize development.

27. With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:

  1. In developing countries, a strong institutional framework is the only requirement for human development and policy options.
  2. Human development and economic growth are not always positively inter-related.
  3. Focusing only on human development should be the goal of economic growth.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1only

(b) 2 and 3only

(c) 2only

(d) 1, 2and 3

Answer: C

Statement 1 is incorrect. A strong institutional framework is an important factor for human development, but it is not the only requirement. Other factors, such as economic growth, social justice, and political stability, are also important.

Statement 2 is correct. The passage states that "focusing exclusively on economic growth is problematic" and that "an unbalanced emphasis on growth is often associated with negative environmental consequences and distributional effects." This suggests that human development and economic growth are not always positively inter-related.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The passage does not state that focusing only on human development should be the goal of economic growth. In fact, the passage suggests that a balanced approach is needed, one that emphasizes both economic growth and human development.

Therefore, the only correct statement is 2.

28. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
  1. Higher economic growth is essential to ensure reduction in economic disparity.
  2. Environmental degradation is sometimes a consequence of economic growth.

Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions?

(a) 1only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both l and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

The passage states that "an unbalanced emphasis on growth is often associated with negative environmental consequences." This suggests that economic growth can sometimes lead to environmental degradation.

However, the passage does not explicitly state that higher economic growth is essential to ensure reduction in economic disparity. In fact, the passage suggests that a balanced approach is needed, one that emphasizes both economic growth and human development.

Therefore, the only valid assumption is that environmental degradation is sometimes a consequence of economic growth.

29. If A runs less fast than B, and B runs as fast but not faster than C; then, as compared to A, C runs

(a) slower than A

 (b) faster than A

(c) with same speed as A

(d) Given data is not sufficient to determine

Answer: B

We know that A runs less fast than B, and B runs as fast but not faster than C. This means that C is the fastest of the three, followed by B, and then A.

Therefore, C runs faster than A.

The other options are not necessarily true.

  • (a) C does not necessarily run slower than A.
  • (c) C does not necessarily run at the same speed as A.
  • (d) The given data is sufficient to determine that C runs faster than A.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

 
30. Each of A, B, C and D has Rs 100. A pays T 20 to B, who pays Rs 10 to C, who gets € 30 from D

In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) C is the richest.

(b) Dis the poorest.

(c) C has more than what A and D have together,

(d) B is richer than D.

Answer: C

Let's start by tracking the flow of money:

  • A pays Rs 20 to B, so A now has Rs 100 - Rs 20 = Rs 80.
  • B pays Rs 10 to C, so B now has Rs 100 - Rs 10 = Rs 90.
  • C gets Rs 30 from D, so C now has Rs 100 + Rs 30 = Rs 130.
  • D pays Rs 30 to C, so D now has Rs 100 - Rs 30 = Rs 70.

Therefore, the final distribution of money is as follows:

  • A: Rs 80
  • B: Rs 90
  • C: Rs 130
  • D: Rs 70

Based on this distribution, we can make the following statements:

  • C is the richest, with Rs 130.
  • D is the poorest, with Rs 70.
  • B is richer than D, since B has Rs 90 and D has Rs 70.

However, the statement "C has more than what A and D have together" is not correct. C has Rs 130, and A and D together have Rs 80 + Rs 70 = Rs 150. Therefore, C does not have more than what A and D have together.

Therefore, the only statement that is not correct is (c).

 
31. In a town, 45% population read magazine A, 55% read magazine B, 40% read magazine C, 30% read magazines A and B, 15% read magazines B and C, 25% read magazines A and C; and 10% read all the three magazines.

What percentage do not read any magazine?

 (a) 10%

(b) 15%

(c) 20%

(d) 25%

 

Answer: C

 

 

32. Examine the following statements:
  1. Lady's finger is tastier than cabbage.
  2. Cauliflower is tastier than lady's finger.
  3. Cabbage is not tastier than peas.

The conclusion that can be drawn from these statements is that

(a) peas are as tasty as lady's finger.

(b) peas are as tasty as cauliflower and lady’s finger.

(c) cabbage is the least tasty of the four vegetables,

(d) cauliflower is tastier than cabbage

Answer: D

Let's analyze the statements:

  1. Lady's finger is tastier than cabbage.
  2. Cauliflower is tastier than lady's finger.
  3. Cabbage is not tastier than peas.

From these statements, we can draw the following conclusions:

  • Cauliflower is tastier than lady's finger (Statement 2).
  • Lady's finger is tastier than cabbage (Statement 1).
  • Cabbage is not tastier than peas (Statement 3).

Now, let's compare the tastiness of these vegetables:

  • Cauliflower > Lady's finger (from Statement 2).
  • Lady's finger > Cabbage (from Statement 1).
  • Cabbage < Peas (from Statement 3).

Based on the above comparisons, we can conclude that:

(d) Cauliflower is tastier than cabbage.

This conclusion is supported by the given statements.

33. Shahid and Rohit start from the same point in opposite directions. After each 1 km, Shahid always turns left and Rohit always turns right.

Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) After both have travelled 2 km, the distance between them is 4 km.

(b) They meet after each has travelled 3 km.

(c) They meet for the first time after each has travelled 4 km.

 (d) They go on without ever meeting again.

Answer: B

After each has traveled 3 km, Shahid and Rohit will meet for the first time.

This is because after traveling 1 km, Shahid will be facing east and Rohit will be facing west. After traveling another 1 km, Shahid will be facing north and Rohit will be facing south. And after traveling another 1 km, Shahid and Rohit will meet again, facing each other.

The other options are not necessarily true.

  • (a) After both have traveled 2 km, the distance between them will not be 4 km. It will be 2 km.
  • (c) They may or may not meet for the first time after each has traveled 4 km. It depends on the specific path that they take.
  • (d) They may or may not go on without ever meeting again. It depends on the specific path that they take.

Therefore, the only correct statement is (b).

34. In a 500 meteres race, B starts 45 meteres ahead of A, but A wins the race while B is still 35 meteres behind.

What is the ratio of the speeds of A to B assuming that both start at the same time?

(a) 25:21

(b) 25:20

(c) 5:3

(d) 5:7

Answer: A

To calculate the ratio of the speeds of A to B, we can use the following formula:

Ratio of speeds of A to B = Distance covered by A / Distance covered by B

We know that A wins the race while B is still 35 meters behind. This means that A covers 500 meters + 35 meters = 535 meters.

We also know that B starts 45 meters ahead of A, but A wins the race. This means that B covers 500 meters - 45 meters = 455 meters.

Therefore, the ratio of the speeds of A to B is:

Ratio of speeds of A to B = 535 meters / 455 meters = 25:21

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

 
35. Two equal glasses of same type are respectively 1/3 and 1/4 full of milk. They are then filled up with water and the contents are mixed in a pot.

What is the ratio of milk and water in the pot?

(a) 7:17

(b) 1:3

(c) 9:21

(d) 11:23

Answer: A

To calculate the ratio of milk and water in the pot, we can use the following steps:

  1. Calculate the total amount of milk in the pot:
    • Amount of milk in the first glass = 1/3 of the glass
    • Amount of milk in the second glass = 1/4 of the glass

Total amount of milk in the pot = 1/3 of the first glass + 1/4 of the second glass

Since the two glasses are of the same type, we can assume that they have the same volume.

Therefore, the total amount of milk in the pot = 1/3 + 1/4 = 7/12 of the pot

  1. Calculate the total amount of water in the pot:
    • Amount of water in the first glass = 2/3 of the glass
    • Amount of water in the second glass = 3/4 of the glass

Total amount of water in the pot = 2/3 of the first glass + 3/4 of the second glass

Since the two glasses are of the same type, we can assume that they have the same volume.

Therefore, the total amount of water in the pot = 2/3 + 3/4 = 17/12 of the pot

  1. Calculate the ratio of milk and water in the pot:

Ratio of milk and water in the pot = Amount of milk in the pot / Amount of water in the pot

Ratio of milk and water in the pot = 7/12 / 17/12

Ratio of milk and water in the pot = 7:17

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

36. Out of 130 students appearing in an examination, 62 failed in English, 52 failed in Mathematics, whereas 24 failed in both English and Mathematics.

The number of students who passed finally is

 (a) 40

(b) 50

(c) 65

(d) 60

Answer: A

To find the number of students who passed the examination, we need to subtract the number of students who failed from the total number of students.

Given: Total number of students (N) = 130 Number of students who failed in English (FE) = 62 Number of students who failed in Mathematics (FM) = 52 Number of students who failed in both English and Mathematics (FBE&M) = 24

We can use the principle of inclusion-exclusion to find the total number of students who failed:

Total number of students who failed (F) = FE + FM - FBE&M F = 62 + 52 - 24 F = 90

Now, to find the number of students who passed (P), subtract the number of students who failed from the total number of students:

P = N - F P = 130 - 90 P = 40

So, the number of students who passed the examination is 40.

The correct answer is (a) 40.

37. In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati. In that group none can speak any other language. If 2 persons in the group can speak two languages only and one person can speak all the three languages, then how many persons are there in the group?

(a) 21

(b) 22

 (c) 23

(d) 24

Answer: C

 

 
38. In a parking area, the total number of wheels of all the cars (four-wheelers) and scooters/ motorbikes (two-wheelers) is 100 more than twice the number of parked vehicles.

The number of cars parked is

(a) 35

(b) 45

(c) 50

 (d) 55

Answer: C

Let's denote the number of cars as "C" and the number of scooters/motorbikes as "S."

We are given the following information:

  1. The total number of wheels of all the cars and scooters/motorbikes is 100 more than twice the number of parked vehicles.

Mathematically, this can be represented as:

4C + 2S = 2(C + S) + 100

Now, let's simplify this equation:

4C + 2S = 2C + 2S + 100

Subtract 2C and 2S from both sides of the equation:

2C = 100

Now, divide both sides by 2 to find the number of cars (C):

C = 100 / 2

C = 50

So, the number of cars parked is 50.

The correct answer is (c) 50.

39. The mangroves can shed tons of leaves per acre every year; fungi and bacteria break down this leaf litter and consume it, they then are consumed by tiny worms and crustaceans, which in turn feed small fish, which feed larger fish and birds and crocodiles.

Which among the following is the most logical inference of the above statement?

(a) Coastal areas cannot have food chains without mangroves,

(b) Mangroves are an essential component of all marine ecosystems.

(c) Mangroves have a crucial role in some of the coastal food chains.

(d) The composition of marine flora and fauna is largely determined by mangroves.

Answer: C

The most logical inference of the passage is that mangroves have a crucial role in some of the coastal food chains.

The passage describes how mangroves support a diverse food chain, from fungi and bacteria to large fish and birds. It does not say that coastal areas cannot have food chains without mangroves, or that mangroves are an essential component of all marine ecosystems. It also does not say that the composition of marine flora and fauna is largely determined by mangroves.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

 
40. “By liberty I mean the eager maintenance of that atmosphere in which men have the opportunity to be their best selves.”

Which one of the following expresses the view implied in the above statement?

(a) Liberty is the absence of restraint on human action.

(b) Liberty is what law permits people to perform.

(c) Liberty is the ability to do what one desires.

(d) Liberty is the maintenance of conditions for the growth of human personality

Answer: D

The statement "By liberty I mean the eager maintenance of that atmosphere in which men have the opportunity to be their best selves" implies that liberty is the maintenance of conditions for the growth of human personality.

Option (a) is incorrect because it defines liberty as the absence of restraint on human action. This is a narrow definition of liberty, and it does not take into account the fact that liberty also requires certain conditions to exist for people to be able to flourish. For example, people need to be free from discrimination and oppression in order to reach their full potential.

Option (b) is incorrect because it defines liberty as what law permits people to perform. This definition is too legalistic, and it does not take into account the fact that liberty is also a moral concept. People have a moral right to be free, even if the law does not permit certain actions.

Option (c) is incorrect because it defines liberty as the ability to do what one desires. This is a simplistic definition of liberty, and it does not take into account the fact that liberty is also a social concept. People's liberties are limited by the liberties of others, and by the need to maintain social order.

Option (d) is correct because it defines liberty as the maintenance of conditions for the growth of human personality. This is a broad and nuanced definition of liberty, and it takes into account the fact that liberty is both a moral and social concept. It also takes into account the fact that liberty is essential for people to be able to reach their full potential.

 

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items:

Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

 Passage - 1

Climate change is already making many people hungry all over the world, by disrupting crop yields and pushing up prices. And it is not just food but nutrients that are becoming scarcer as the climate changes. It is the poorest communities that will suffer the worst effects of climate change, including increased hunger and malnutrition as crop production and livelihoods are threatened. On the other hand, poverty is a driver of climate change, as desperate communities resort to unsustainable use of resources to meet current needs.

41. Logical corollary to the above passage?

(a) Government should allocate more funds to poverty alleviation programmes and increase food subsidies to the poor communities.

(b) Poverty and climate impacts reinforce each other and therefore we have to re-imagine our food systems.

(c) All the countries of the world must unite in fighting poverty and malnutrition and treat poverty as a global problem.

(d) We must stop unsustainable agricultural practices immediately and control food prices.

Answer: B

The passage describes how climate change is making many people hungry all over the world by disrupting crop yields and pushing up prices. It also states that the poorest communities will suffer the worst effects of climate change, including increased hunger and malnutrition as crop production and livelihoods are threatened. On the other hand, the passage also states that poverty is a driver of climate change, as desperate communities resort to unsustainable use of resources to meet current needs.

This suggests that there is a vicious cycle between poverty and climate change. Poverty makes communities more vulnerable to the effects of climate change, and climate change makes it more difficult for communities to escape poverty. This cycle can only be broken by re-imagining our food systems to be more sustainable and resilient to climate change.

Option (a) is incorrect because it is a specific policy recommendation, rather than a general conclusion that can be drawn from the passage.

Option (c) is incorrect because it is a call to action, rather than a conclusion that can be drawn from the passage.

Option (d) is incorrect because it is too narrow. The passage does not specifically mention agricultural practices or food prices.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

 

Passage - 2

The Global Financial Stability Report finds that the share of portfolio investments from advanced economies in the total debt and equity investments in emerging economies has doubled in the past decade to 12 percent. The phenomenon has implications for Indian policy makers as foreign portfolio investments in the debt and equity markets have been on the rise. The phenomenon is also flagged as a threat that could compromise global financial stability in a chain reaction, in the event of United States its Federal Reserve's imminent reversal of “Quantitative Easing” policy.

42. Which among the following is the most rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Foreign portfolio investments are not good for emerging economies.

(b) Advanced economies undermine the global financial stability.

 (c) India should desist from accepting foreign portfolio investments in the future.

 (d) Emerging economies are at a risk of shock from advanced economies

Answer: D

The passage states that the share of portfolio investments from advanced economies in the total debt and equity investments in emerging economies has doubled in the past decade to 12 percent. It also states that this phenomenon is a threat that could compromise global financial stability in a chain reaction, in the event of United States its Federal Reserve's imminent reversal of “Quantitative Easing” policy.

This suggests that emerging economies are vulnerable to shocks from advanced economies. If there is a sudden reversal of capital flows from advanced economies, it could lead to a financial crisis in emerging economies. This is because emerging economies rely heavily on foreign portfolio investments to finance their development.

Option (a) is incorrect because the passage does not say that foreign portfolio investments are not good for emerging economies. In fact, foreign portfolio investments can provide emerging economies with access to capital and help them to grow their economies. However, the passage does warn that there are risks associated with foreign portfolio investments, especially if they are not managed carefully.

Option (b) is incorrect because the passage does not say that advanced economies undermine the global financial stability. The passage simply states that the increasing reliance of emerging economies on foreign portfolio investments from advanced economies poses a threat to global financial stability.

Option (c) is incorrect because the passage does not say that India should desist from accepting foreign portfolio investments in the future. The passage simply warns that there are risks associated with foreign portfolio investments, and that India should manage these risks carefully.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

 

Passage - 3

Open defecation is disastrous when practised in very densely populated areas, where it is impossible to keep away human faces from crops, wells, food and children's hands. Groundwater is also contaminated by open defecation. Many ingested germs and worms spread diseases. They prevent the body from absorbing calories and nutrients. Nearly one-half of India’s children remain malnourished. Lakhs of them die from preventable conditions. Diarrhoeal leaves Indians’ bodies smaller on average than those of people in some poorer countries where people eat fewer calories. Underweight mothers produce stunted babies prone to sickness who may fail to develop their full cognitive potential. The germs released into environment harm rich and poor alike, even those who use latrines.

43. Which among the following is the mast critical inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) The Central and State governments in India do not have enough resources to afford a latrine for each household.

(b) Open defecation is the most important public health problem of India.

(c) Open defecation reduces the human capital of India’s workforce,

 (d) Open defecation is a public health problem in all developing countries

Answer: C

The passage highlights the detrimental effects of open defecation on public health and its consequences, including malnutrition, diseases, and hindered cognitive development. It implies that open defecation negatively impacts the human capital of India's workforce, which can have long-term economic and social implications.

 

Passage - 4

We generally talk about democracy but when it comes to any particular thing, we prefer a belonging to our caste or community or religion. So long as we have this kind of temptation, our democracy will remain a phoney kind of democracy. We must be in a position to respect a man as a man and to extend opportunities for development to those who deserve them and not to those who happen to belong to our community or race. This fact of favoritism has been responsible for much discontent and ill-will in our country.

44. Which one of the following statements best sums up the above passage?

(a) Our country has a lot of diversity with its many castes, communities and religions.

(b) True democracy could be established by providing equal opportunities to all.

(c) So far none of us have actually understood the meaning of democracy.

(d) It will never be possible for us to establish truly democratic governance in our country.

Answer: B

The passage is about the importance of equality in democracy. The author argues that true democracy can only be established if we provide equal opportunities to all, regardless of caste, community, or religion. They also state that the favoritism that exists in our country is responsible for much discontent and ill-will.

Therefore, the best statement that sums up the passage is: (b) True democracy could be established by providing equal opportunities to all.

The other statements are not directly supported by the passage:

  • (a) The passage does mention that India has a lot of diversity, but it does not make this the main point.
  • (c) The passage does not say that no one understands the meaning of democracy. It simply says that we need to do a better job of upholding its principles.
  • (d) The passage does not say that it is impossible to establish true democracy in India. It simply says that we need to overcome the challenge of favoritism.

Overall, the passage is a call for us to strive for a more equitable and just democracy.

 

Passage - 5

The existence/establishment of formal financial institutions that offer safe, reliable and alternative financial instruments is fundamental in mobilizing savings. To save, individuals need access to safe and reliable financial institutions, such as banks, and to appropriate financial instruments and reasonable financial incentives. Such access is not always available to all people in developing countries like India and more so, in rural areas. Savings help poor households manage volatility in cash flow, smoothen consumption, and build working capital. Poor households without access to a formal savings mechanism encourage immediate spending temptations.

45. With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements:

  1. Indian financial institutions do not offer + any financial instruments to rural households to mobilise their savings.
  2. Poor households tend to spend their earnings/savings due to lack of access to appropriate financial instruments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1only

(b) 2only

(c) Both l and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian financial institutions do offer a variety of financial instruments to rural households to mobilize their savings, such as savings accounts, fixed deposits, and recurring deposits. However, poor households often lack access to these instruments due to a number of factors, such as lack of awareness, documentation, and transportation.

Statement 2 is correct. Poor households without access to appropriate financial instruments are often tempted to spend their earnings/savings immediately. This is because they may have unexpected expenses or they may not have a safe place to store their money.

Therefore, the only correct statement is 2.

 
46. What is the crucial message conveyed in the passage?

(a) Establish more banks

(b) Increase the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate

(c) Increase the deposits

(d) Promote financial Inclusion

Answer: D

The passage discusses the importance of savings for poor households, and how lack of access to formal financial institutions can lead to immediate spending temptations. It also mentions that Indian financial institutions do offer a variety of financial instruments to rural households to mobilize their savings, but that poor households often lack access to these instruments due to a number of factors.

The passage concludes by suggesting a number of ways to encourage poor households to save, such as providing financial literacy programs, making financial services more accessible, offering financial incentives, and developing innovative financial products and services.

All of these suggestions are aimed at promoting financial inclusion, which is the process of ensuring that all individuals and businesses have access to appropriate, affordable, and timely financial products and services.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Promote financial inclusion.

The other options are not directly supported by the passage:

  • (a) The passage does not mention the need to establish more banks specifically. It simply says that financial services need to be made more accessible.
  • (b) The passage does not discuss the importance of increasing GDP growth.
  • (c) The passage does not discuss the importance of increasing deposits specifically. It simply says that poor households need to be encouraged to save.

 

Passage - 6

Governments may have to take, steps which would otherwise be an infringement on the Fundamental Rights of individuals, such as acquiring a person's land against his will, or refusing permission for putting up a building, but the larger public interest for which these are done must be authorized by the people (Parliament). Discretionary powers to the administration can be done away with. It is becoming more and more difficult to keep this power within limits as the government has many numbers of tasks to perform. Where discretion has to be used, there must be rules and safeguards to prevent misuse of that power. Systems have to be devised which minimize, if not prevent, the abuse of discretionary power. Government work must be conducted within a framework of recognised rules and principles, and decisions should be similar and predictable.

47. Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Government should always be given wide discretionary power in all matters of administration.

(b) The supremacy of rules and safeguards should prevail as opposed to the influence of exclusive discretion of authority,

(c) Parliamentary democracy is possible only if the Government has wider discretionary power.

(d) None of the above statements is a logical assumption that can be made from this passage.

Answer: B

The most logical assumption that can be made from the passage is that the supremacy of rules and safeguards should prevail as opposed to the influence of exclusive discretion of authority.

The passage discusses how governments may need to take steps that infringe on individual rights in certain cases, such as acquiring land or refusing permission for construction. However, it argues that such actions must be authorized by the people through Parliament. It also emphasizes the importance of rules and safeguards to prevent the misuse of discretionary power.

This suggests that the author believes that the government should not have unfettered discretion. Instead, its actions should be governed by clear rules and principles that are known to the public. This is necessary to protect individual rights and ensure that the government exercises its power in a fair and just manner.

The other options are not directly supported by the passage:

  • (a) The passage does not say that the government should always be given wide discretionary power in all matters of administration. In fact, it argues that the government's discretion should be limited by rules and safeguards.
  • (b) The passage does not say that parliamentary democracy is only possible if the government has wider discretionary power. It simply says that the government's actions should be authorized by Parliament.
  • (c) None of the above statements is a logical assumption that can be made from this passage. The passage does not make any of these statements explicitly.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b).

 
48. A selection is to be made for one post of Principal and two posts of Vice-Principal. Amongst the six candidates called for the interview, only two are eligible for the post of Principal while they all are eligible for the post of Vice-Principal.

The number of possible combinations of selectees is

(a) 4

(b) 12

(c) 18

(d) None of the above

Answer: D

To determine the number of possible combinations of selectees, we can break it down into two cases:

Case 1: Selection of Principal There are 2 eligible candidates for the post of Principal. Therefore, the number of ways to select 1 candidate for the Principal position is 2.

Case 2: Selection of Vice-Principal There are 6 candidates eligible for the Vice-Principal positions, and we need to select 2 of them. This can be done using the combination formula (nCr):

Number of ways to select 2 Vice-Principals from 6 candidates = 6C2 = (6!)/(2!(6-2)!) = (65)/(21) = 15 ways.

Now, to find the total number of possible combinations of selectees for the Principal and Vice-Principal positions, we multiply the possibilities from each case:

Total combinations = Case 1 * Case 2 = 2 * 15 = 30.

So, there are 30 possible combinations of selectees.

None of the provided answer options (a, b, c) matches the correct answer, which is 30.

 
49. A student has to opt for 2 subjects out of 5 subjects for a course, namely, Commerce, Economics, Statistics, Mathematics 1 and Mathematics II. Mathematics II can be offered only if Mathematics 1 is also opted.

The number of different combinations of two subjects which can be opted is

(a) 5

 (b) 6

(c) 7

 (d) 8

Answer: C

  • If mathematics I is not opted, then two subjects out of four subjects have to be chosen. Number of ways in which two subjects can be chosen out of four is nc2 = (4 х 3)/2 = 6.
  • If mathematics II is opted, then it can be offered only if mathematics I is also opted. Number of ways in which two subjects can be opted is = 6 + 1 = 7.
  • Hence, there are total 7 ways to choose two subjects.
 
50. A person ordered 5 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black pair was thrice that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill, the bill clerk interchanged the number of black and brown pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 100%.

What was the number of pairs of brown socks in the original order?

(a) 10

(b) 15

(c) 20

(d) 25

Answer: D

Let the Price of Brown socks = z and the number of Brown socks = n

According to question, the price of black pair was thrice that of a brown pair Price of Black pair = 3z

Now, wrong bill is 100% more means it is twice than the correct bill.

 ⇒ n × 3z + 5 × z = 2 ( n × z + 5 × 3z)

 ⇒ 3n + 5 = 2n + 30

⇒ n = 25

 ∴ the number of pairs of brown socks in the original order is 25.

 

51. (This question is not taken for scoring by UPSC)

The number of persons who read magazine X only is thrice the number of persons who read magazine Y. The number of persons who read magazine Y only is thrice the number of persons who read magazine X. Then, which of the following conclusions can be drawn?

  1. The number of persons who read both the magazines is twice the number of persons who read only magazine X.
  2. The total number of persons who read either one magazine or both the magazines is twice the number of persons who read both the magazines.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1only

(b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Let's denote:

  • X = the number of persons who read magazine X only.
  • Y = the number of persons who read magazine Y only.
  • XY = the number of persons who read both magazines X and Y.

According to the information given:

  1. X = 3Y (The number of persons who read magazine X only is thrice the number of persons who read magazine Y).
  2. Y = 3X (The number of persons who read magazine Y only is thrice the number of persons who read magazine X).

Now, let's analyse the conclusions:

  1. The number of persons who read both the magazines (XY) is twice the number of persons who read only magazine X (X).

This conclusion can be derived from the given information since X = 3Y, and if we consider Y as 1, then X is 3, and XY is 3 as well. So, XY is indeed twice X in this specific case.

  1. The total number of persons who read either one magazine or both the magazines (X + Y + XY) is twice the number of persons who read both the magazines (XY).

This conclusion can also be derived from the given information. If we add X and Y (persons who read only X and only Y), we get X + Y = 3Y + 3X, which is indeed twice the number of persons who read both magazines (2XY).

So, both conclusions can be drawn.

The correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

 
52. The graph below depicts the earnings of A and B over the period 2000 to 2010:

From the graph, which one of the following can be concluded?

(a) On the average A earned more than B during this period.

(b) On the average B earned more than A during this period.

(c) The earnings of A and B were equal during this period.

(d) The earnings of A were less as compared to B during this period.

Answer: A

From the graph, we can observe the following:

  • In the year 2000, A's earnings were higher than B's.
  • In the year 2005, A's earnings were significantly higher than B's.
  • In the year 2010, A's earnings were higher than B's, but the difference between their earnings reduced compared to 2005.

Based on the observations, we can conclude that, on average, A earned more than B during this period.

So, the correct answer is (a) on the average A earned more than B during this period.

53. Two pipes A and B can independently fill a tank completely in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, how much time will they take to fill the tank completely?

(a) 10 minutes

(b) 12 minutes

(c) 15 minutes

(d) 25 minutes

Answer: B

The rate of pipe A is 1/20 tank/min

The rate of pipe B is 1/30 tank/min

The combined rate of A and B is 1/20 + 1/30 = 5/60 = 1/12 tank/min

So the time taken by both A and B to fill the tank completely is 12 minutes.

 So the answer is (b)

54. Each of the six different faces of a cube has been coated with a different colour i.e., V, I, B, G, Y and O. Following information is given:

  1. Colours Y, O and B are on adjacent faces.
  2. Colours I, G and Y are on adjacent faces.
  3. Colours B, G and Y are on adjacent faces.
  4. Colours O, V and B are on adjacent faces.

Which is the colour of the face opposite to the face colored with O?

(a) B

(b) V

(c) G

(d) I

Answer: C

   

55. Consider the following statements followed by two conclusions:

Statements: Some men are great.

Some men are wise,

Conclusion I: Men are cither great or wise.

Conclusion II: Some men are neither great nor wise.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a)Only conclusion I is valid

(b)Only conclusion II is valid

(c) Both the conclusions are valid

(d)Neither of the conclusions is valid

Answer: D

 

56. Consider the following statements:
  1. Some claim to have seen (Unidentified Flying Objects).
  2. Life on other considered to be a possibility.
  3. Voyage to space is now an established fact.

 UFOs From the above statements, it may be concluded that

(a) UFOs are heavenly bodies

(b) UFOs are sent from other heavenly bodies

(c) Some living species in other heavenly bodies are more intelligent than man

(d) Nothing definite can be said about the UFOs

Answer: D

The correct answer is (d).

The statements do not provide any information about the nature of UFOs, so it is impossible to say anything definite about them.

Statement 1 only says that some people claim to have seen UFOs. It does not say what UFOs are or where they come from.

Statement 2 says that life on other heavenly bodies is considered to be a possibility. This does not mean that UFOs are sent from other heavenly bodies. It is possible that UFOs are something else entirely.

Statement 3 says that voyage to space is now an established fact. This does not mean that UFOs are heavenly bodies or that they are sent from other heavenly bodies. It is possible that UFOs are something that exists outside of our solar system.

Therefore, the only possible conclusion from the given statements is that nothing definite can be said about UFOs.

57. IH ABC x DEED =ABCABC; where A, B, C, D and E are different digits, what are the values of D and E?

(a) D=2, E=0

(b) D=0, E=1

(c) D=1, E=0

(d) D=1, E=2

Answer: C

We can start by solving for the value of D. We know that the product of ABC and DEED is ABCABC. This means that the unit’s digit of the product must be 0, since the unit’s digit of the product of two numbers can only be 0 if one of the factors is a 0.

Therefore, the unit’s digit of DEED must be 0, which means that E must be 0.

Next, we can solve for the value of D. We know that the tens digit of the product of ABC and DEED is 1, since the tens digit of the product of two numbers can only be 1 if one of the factors is a 1 and the other factor is a number ending in 0.

Therefore, the tens digit of DEED must be 1, which means that D must be 1.

We can check our answer by multiplying ABC by DEED. If D=1 and E=0, then the product is 1001 x 1010 = 101101, which is the same as ABCABC.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) D=1, E=0.

 
58. Year-wise variation of the price of a certain commodity is shown in the following graph:

The price of the commodity in the year 1990

(a) must have been ¥ 10/-

(b) must have been T 12/-

(c) must have been anywhere between T 10/- and T 20/-

(d) is higher than that in the year 1991

Answer: C

The price of the commodity in the year 1990 must have been somewhere between 10 and 20. This is because the line graph shows that the price of the commodity was 10 in 1989 and 20 in 1992, so it is reasonable to assume that the price of the commodity in 1990 was somewhere between these two values.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

 

59. The proportion of expenditure on various items by two families A and B are represented in the following Bar Charts:
 
 

50%

Food

 30%

Other items

 20%

Education

 

10% Food

60% Other items

30% Education

 

 Family A                                                                Family B

Total expenditure:                                          Total expenditure:

20,000 per month                                             1, 00,000 per month

From these charts, we can conclude that

(a) Family A spent more money on food than Family B.

(b) Family B spent more money on food than Family A.

(c) Family A and Family B spent the same amount on food.

(d) The expenditure on food by Family A and Family B cannot be compared

Answer: C

Let's calculate the expenditure on food for both Family A and Family B:

For Family A: Expenditure on Food = 50% of 20,000 = 0.5 * 20,000 = 10,000 per month

For Family B: Expenditure on Food = 10% of 1,00,000 = 0.1 * 1,00,000 = 10,000 per month

So, both Family A and Family B spent the same amount on food, which is 10,000 per month.

The correct answer is (c) Family A and Family B spent the same amount on food.

 
60. Usha runs faster than Kamala, Priti runs slower than Swati, Swati runs slower than Kamala. Who is the slowest runner?

(a) Kamala

(b)  Priti

(c) Swati

(d) Usha

Answer: B

Let's analyse the information given:

  1. Usha runs faster than Kamala.
  2. Priti runs slower than Swati.
  3. Swati runs slower than Kamala.

From the information, we can conclude the following order from slowest to fastest:

Priti < Swati < Kamala < Usha

So, the slowest runner is (b) Priti.

 

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

 Passage — 1

India has suffered from persistent high inflation. Increase demand and in administered prices, supply inflation aggravated by rupee depreciation and speculation — have combined to keep high inflation going. If there is an element common to all of them, it is that many of them are the outcomes of India’s of changes in imbalances, imported reforms. to the effects international prices has increased with trade liberalisation. The effort to reduce subsidies has resulted in a continuous increase in the prices of economic vulnerability commodities that are administered.

61. What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?

(a) Under the present circumstances, India should completely avoid all trade liberalisation policies and all subsidies.

(b) Due to its peculiar socio-economic situation, India is not yet ready for trade liberalisation process.

(c) There is no solution in sight for the problems of continuing poverty and inflation in India in the near future.

(d) Economic reforms can often create a high inflation economy.

Answer: D

The most logical, rational, and crucial message that is implied in the above passage is that economic reforms can often create a high inflation economy.

The passage discusses the various factors that have contributed to India's persistent high inflation, including trade liberalization, subsidy reduction, and international price fluctuations. It also notes that many of these factors are the outcomes of India's economic reforms.

While economic reforms can have many positive benefits, such as increased economic growth and efficiency, they can also lead to negative consequences, such as high inflation. This is because economic reforms can lead to changes in the way that goods and services are produced and distributed, which can disrupt existing markets and create new inflationary pressures.

The passage also suggests that India is not yet ready for the trade liberalization process due to its peculiar socio-economic situation. This implies that economic reforms should be implemented in a gradual and cautious manner, taking into account the specific needs and circumstances of the country.

 

Passage - 2

No Right is absolute, exclusive or inviolable. The Right of personal property, similarly, has to be perceived in the larger context of its assumed legitimacy. The Right of personal property should unite the principle of liberty with that of equality, and both with the principle of cooperation.

62. In the light of the argument in the above passage, which one of the statements is the explanation following most convincing

(a) The Right of personal property is a Natural Right duly supported by statutes and scriptures.

(b) Personal property is a theft and an instrument of exploitation. The Right of personal property is therefore violative of economic justice.

(c) The Right of personal property is violative of distributive justice and negates the principle of cooperation,

 (d) The comprehensive idea of economic justice demands that the Right of each person to acquisition of property has to be reconciled with that of others

Answer: D

The most convincing explanation of the passage is that the comprehensive idea of economic justice demands that the Right of each person to acquisition of property has to be reconciled with that of others.

The passage argues that the Right of personal property is not absolute, exclusive, or inviolable. It also argues that the Right of personal property should unite the principle of liberty with that of equality, and both with the principle of cooperation.

This suggests that the Right of personal property should be exercised in a way that does not violate the rights of others, and that promotes the common good.

The other statements are either incorrect or irrelevant to the passage. For example, statement (a) is incorrect because the passage does not argue that the Right of personal property is a Natural Right. Statement (b) is irrelevant because the passage does not discuss whether or not personal property is a theft and an instrument of exploitation. Statement (c) is partially correct, but it does not capture the full message of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

 

Passage - 3

The conflict between man and State is as old as State history. Although attempts have been made for centuries to bring about a proper adjustment between the competing claims of State and the individual, the solution seems to be still far off. This is primarily because of the dynamic nature of human society where old values and ideas constantly yield place to new ones. It is obvious that if individuals are allowed to have absolute freedom of speech and action, the result would be chaos, ruin and anarchy.

63. The author's viewpoint can be best summed up in which of the following statements?

(a) The conflict between the claims of State and individual remains unresolved.

(b) Anarchy and chaos are the obvious results of democratic traditions.

(c) Old values, ideas and traditions persist despite the dynamic nature of human society.

(d) Constitutional guarantee of freedom of speech is not in the interest of society

Answer: A

The author's viewpoint can be best summed up in the following statement:

The conflict between the claims of State and individual remains unresolved.

The passage discusses the long-standing conflict between the state and the individual, and argues that this conflict is difficult to resolve because of the dynamic nature of human society. The author acknowledges that attempts have been made to balance the competing claims of the state and the individual, but suggests that a satisfactory solution has not yet been found.

The other statements are either incorrect or irrelevant to the passage. For example, statement (b) is incorrect because the passage does not argue that anarchy and chaos are the obvious results of democratic traditions. Statement (c) is irrelevant because the passage does not discuss whether or not old values, ideas, and traditions persist despite the dynamic nature of human society. Statement (d) is incorrect because the passage does not discuss the constitutional guarantee of freedom of speech.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

 

Passage — 4

Climate change is a complex policy issue with major implications in terms of finance. All actions to address climate change ultimately involve costs. Funding is vital for countries like India to design and implement adaptation and mitigation plans and projects. Lack of funding is a large impediment to implementing adaptation plans. The scale and magnitude of the financial support required by developing countries to enhance their domestic mitigation and adaptation actions are a matter of intense debate in the multilateral negotiations under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).- The Convention squarely puts the responsibility for provision of financial support on the developed countries, taking into account their contribution to the stock of greenhouse gases (GHGs) in the atmosphere. Given the magnitude of the task and the funds required, domestic finances are likely to fall short of the current and projected - needs of the developing countries. Global funding through the multilateral mechanism of the Convention will enhance their domestic capacity to finance the mitigation efforts.

64. According to the passage, which of the following is/are a matter of intense debate in the multilateral negotiations under UNFCCC regarding the role of developing countries in climate change?

  1. The scale and size of required financial support.
  2. The crop loss due to climate change in the developing countries.
  3. To enhance the mitigation and adaptation actions in the developing countries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

According to the passage, the matter of intense debate in the multilateral negotiations under UNFCCC regarding the role of developing countries in climate change is primarily related to the financial support required for their mitigation and adaptation actions. Therefore, statement 1 and statement 3 are relevant to the passage. Statement 2, which discusses crop loss, is not mentioned in the passage. 

 

65. In this passage, the Convention puts the responsibility for the provision of financial support on the developed countries because of
  1. Their higher level of per capita incomes.
  2. Their large quantum of GDP their large contribution to the stock of GHGs in the atmosphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 (a) 1 only

(b) 1and 2only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

The passage states that the Convention puts the responsibility for the provision of financial support on the developed countries because of their large contribution to the stock of greenhouse gases (GHGs) in the atmosphere.

The passage does not mention the developed countries' higher level of per capita incomes or their large quantum of GDP as reasons for their responsibility to provide financial support.

Therefore, the only reason mentioned in the passage for the developed countries' responsibility to provide financial support is their large contribution to the stock of GHGs in the atmosphere.

Hence, the correct answer is (c).

 66. With regards to developing countries, it can be inferred from the passage that climate change is likely to have implications on their

  1. Domestic finances.
  2. Capacity for multilateral trade.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1only

(b) 2 only

(c) Bothland2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

From the passage, it can be inferred that climate change is likely to have implications on the domestic finances of developing countries. This is explicitly mentioned in the passage as a significant concern.

However, the passage does not mention anything about climate change affecting the capacity for multilateral trade in developing countries.

 

67. Which one of the following is essentially discussed in the passage?

(a) Conflict between developed and developing countries regarding support for mitigation

(b) Occurrence of climate change due to excessive exploitation of natural resources by the developed countries

(c) Lack of political will on the part of all the countries to implement adaptation plans

(d) Governance problems of developing countries as a result of climate change

Answer: A

The passage essentially discusses the conflict between developed and developing countries regarding support for mitigation.

The passage states that the Convention puts the responsibility for the provision of financial support on the developed countries because of their large contribution to the stock of GHGs in the atmosphere. However, the passage also states that the scale and magnitude of the financial support required by developing countries to enhance their domestic mitigation and adaptation actions are a matter of intense debate in the multilateral negotiations under UNFCCC.

This suggests that there is a conflict between developed and developing countries over the amount of financial support that should be provided to developing countries to help them mitigate climate change.

The other statements are either incorrect or irrelevant to the passage. For example, statement (b) is incorrect because the passage does not discuss the occurrence of climate change due to excessive exploitation of natural resources by the developed countries. Statement (c) is irrelevant because the passage does not discuss the lack of political will on the part of all the countries to implement adaptation plans. Statement (d) is incorrect because the passage does not discuss the governance problems of developing countries as a result of climate change.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

68. Between 6 PM and 7 PM the minute hand of a clock will be ahead of the hour hand by 3 minutes at

(a) 6:15PM

(b) 6:18 PM

(c) 6:36PM

(d) 6:48 PM

Answer: C

The minute hand moves 12 times faster than the hour hand. So, in 1 hour (or 60 minutes), the minute hand moves 720 degrees, while the hour hand moves 30 degrees.

If we assume that the time is x minutes past 6 PM, then the minute hand has moved x degrees, while the hour hand has moved x/12 degrees.

For the minute hand to be ahead of the hour hand by 3 minutes, it means that the minute hand must have moved 18 degrees more than the hour hand. This means that the following equation must hold:

x - x/12 = 18

Solving for x, we get x = 60 minutes.

Therefore, the minute hand will be ahead of the hour hand by 3 minutes at 6:36 PM.

 
69. There are 5 tasks and 5 persons. Tasgk-1 cannot be assigned to either person-1. Or person-2. Task-2 must be assigned to either person-3 or person-4. Every person is to be assigned one task. In how many ways can the assignment be done?

(a) 6                  

(b) 12

(c) 24

(d) 144

Answer: C

Case I: Let us assume that task 2 was assigned to person 3.

Case II: Let us assume that task 2 was assigned to person 4.

Task

Case I

Case II

1

Two ways (4/5)

Two ways (3/5)

2

3

4

3

Three ways

Three ways

4

Two ways

Two ways

5

One way

One way

In case I, the number of ways are = 2 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 12

In case II, the number of ways are = 2 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 12

Total number of ways = 12 + 12 = 24

Hence, there are 24 ways to do the assignments.

 
70. The monthly incomes of Peter and Paul are in the ratio of 4: 3. Their expenses are in the ratio of 3: 2. If each saves 6,000 at the end of the month, their monthly incomes respectively are (in Rs)

(a) 24,000 and 18,000

(b) 28,000 and 21,000

(c) 32,000 and 24,000

(d) 84,000 and 26,000

Answer: A

Let the income of Peter and Paul be 4x and 3x respectively.

Then, their expenses would be 3y and 2y respectively, where y is a common factor. We know that both Peter and Paul save Rs. 6,000 each at the end of the month.

⇒ 4x - 3y = 6000

⇒ 3x - 2y = 6000

By solving (1) and (2), we get x = y = 6000.

so the income of Peter is 4x = 4 × 6000 = 24000 Rs.

The income of Paul is 3x = 3 × 6000 = 18000 Rs.

 ∴ The required answer is Rs 24000 and Rs 18000.

 
71. Two cities A and B are 360 km apart. A car goes from A to B with a speed of 40 km/hr and returns to A with a speed of 80 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car?

(a) 45 km/hr

(b) 48 km/hr

(c) 50 km/hr

(d) 55 km/hr

Answer: B

Distance between A and B is 360 km/hr

Average speed of car at a speed u and v = 2uv/u+v

Average speed car = (2 × 40 × 60)/ (40 + 60)

⇒ 4800/100 ⇒ 48 km/hr

 ∴ the required answer is 48 km/hr

 

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Read the following passage and answer the 2 (two) items that follow:

A, B, C, D, E and F are cousins. No two cousins are of the same age, but all have birthdays on the same day of the same month. The youngest is 17 years old and the oldest E is 22 years old. F is somewhere between B and D in age. A is older than B. C is older than D. A is one year older than C.

72. Which one of the following is possible?

(a) Dis 20 years old

(b) F is 18 years old

(c) F is 19 years old

(d) F is 20 years old

Answer: B

The youngest is 17 years old and E the oldest is 22 years old.

F somewhere between and B and D in age

A is older than B. C is older than D.

Here there are four possibilities –

First – E (22) > A (21) > C (20) > B (19) > F (18) > D (17)

Second – E (22) > C (21) > A (20) > B (19) > F (18) > D (17)

Third – E (22) > A (21) > C (20) > D (19) > F (18) > B (17)

Fourth – E (22) > C (21) > A (20) > D (19) > F (18) > B (17)

From the all cases, F is 18 year old.

Hence, "option 1" is correct answer.

73. What is the number of logically possible orders of all six cousins in terms of increasing age?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Answer: B

 

The number of logically possible orders of all six cousins in terms of increasing age is 2.

Here is a breakdown of the possibilities:

Possibility 1:

E > A > C > B > F > D

Possibility 2:

E > C > A > B > F > D

The only difference between the two possibilities is the order of A and C. Since we know that A is one year older than C, we can eliminate Possibility 2.

Therefore, the only logically possible order of all six cousins in terms of increasing age is Possibility 1.

 
74. In a society it is customary for friends of the same sex to hug and for friends of opposite sex to shake hands when they meet. A group of friends met in a party and there were 24 handshakes. Which one among the following numbers indicates the possible number of hugs?

(a) 39

(b) 30

(c) 21

(d) 20

Answer: C

24 can be factored into 2, 2, 2, and 3, or 2^3 * 3.

Handshakes and Hugs:

If there are 6 boys and 4 girls in a group, there will be 24 handshakes between them (6 * 4). There will also be 15 hugs among the boys (5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1) and 6 hugs among the girls (3 + 2 + 1).

Therefore, the total number of hugs is 21.

75. Two men, Anil and David, and two women, Shabnam and Rekha are in a sales group. Only two speak Tamil. The other two speak Marathi. Only one man and one woman can drive a car. Shabnam speaks Marathi. Anil speaks Tamil. Both Rekha and David can drive.

Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Both the Tamil speakers can drive a car.

(b) Both the Marathi speakers can drive a car.

(c) Both of those who can drive a car speak Marathi.

(d) One of those who can drive a car speaks Tamil

Answer: D

We know the following information:

  • Only two people speak Tamil: Anil and David.
  • Only one man and one woman can drive: Rekha and David.
  • Shabnam speaks Marathi.
  • Anil speaks Tamil.

We can conclude that one of the people who can drive (David) also speaks Tamil.

The other statements are not necessarily true:

  • (a) Both the Tamil speakers can drive a car. This statement is false because we do not know whether Rekha speaks Tamil. If she does, then both Tamil speakers can drive. But if she does not, then only one Tamil speaker can drive.
  • (b) Both the Marathi speakers can drive a car. This statement is false because we know that Anil speaks Tamil and cannot drive. Therefore, not both Marathi speakers can drive.
  • (c) Both of those who can drive a car speak Marathi. This statement is false because we know that David speaks Tamil and can drive. Therefore, not both people who can drive speak Marathi.

Therefore, the only true statement is (d) One of those who can drive a car speaks Tamil.

 76. In a plane, line X is perpendicular to line Y and parallel to line Z; line U is perpendicular to both lines V and W; line X is perpendicular to line V.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Z, U and W are parallel.

(b) X, V and Y are parallel.

(c) Z, V and U are all perpendicular to W.

(d) Y, V and W are parallel.

Answer: D

77. A cow costs more than 4 goats but less than 5 goats. If a goat costs between 600 and 800, which of the following is a most valid conclusion?

(a) A cow costs more than ₹ 2,500,

(b) A cow costs less than ₹ 3,600.

(c) A cow costs between ₹ 2,600 and ₹3,800.

(d) A cow costs between ₹ 2,400 and ₹ 4,000.

Answer: D

Let's analyse the information given:

  • A cow costs more than 4 goats but less than 5 goats.
  • The cost of a goat is between ₹600 and ₹800.

Now, let's consider the range of possible prices for a cow based on the cost of goats:

  • The cost of 4 goats would be between 4 * ₹600 = ₹2400 and 4 * ₹800 = ₹3200.
  • The cost of 5 goats would be between 5 * ₹600 = ₹3000 and 5 * ₹800 = ₹4000.

So, a cow costs more than ₹2400 (the cost of 4 goats) but less than ₹4000 (the cost of 5 goats).

Therefore, the most valid conclusion is (d) A cow costs between ₹2,400 and ₹4,000.

 

78. A society consists of only two types of people — fighters and cowards. Two cowards are always friends. A fighter and a coward are always enemies. Fighters are indifferent to one another. If A and B are enemies, C and D are friends, E and F are indifferent to each other, A and E are not enemies, while B and F are enemies,

Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) B, C and F are cowards.

(b) A, E and F are fighters

(c) B and E are in the same category.

(d) A and F are in different categories

Answer: B

It is important to note that the information in the problem statement is sufficient to determine that A, E, and F are fighters. We know the following:

  • C and D are friends, and cowards are always friends. Therefore, C and D are both cowards.
  • E and F are indifferent to each other, and fighters are indifferent to one another. Therefore, E and F are both fighters.
  • B and F are enemies, and fighters are enemies of cowards. Therefore, F is a fighter and B is a coward.
  • A and B are enemies, and fighters are enemies of cowards. Therefore, A is a fighter.

Therefore, we can conclude that A, E, and F are all fighters.

79. In a box of marbles, there are three less white marbles than the red ones and five more white marbles than the green ones. If there are a total of 10 white marbles, how many marbles are there in the box?

(a) 26

(b) 28

(c) 32

(d) 36

Answer: B

Let's use a system of equations to represent the given information:

Let R be the number of red marbles, G be the number of green marbles, and W be the number of white marbles.

We have the following information:

  1. W = R - 3 (Three less white marbles than red ones).
  2. W = G + 5 (Five more white marbles than green ones).
  3. W = 10 (There are a total of 10 white marbles).

We can now set up a system of equations:

W = R - 3 W = G + 5 W = 10

Now, we can solve this system of equations simultaneously:

From equations 1 and 3, we have: R - 3 = 10

Adding 3 to both sides: R = 13

From equations 2 and 3, we have: G + 5 = 10

Subtracting 5 from both sides: G = 5

Now that we have found R, G, and W, we can find the total number of marbles in the box:

Total = R + G + W Total = 13 + 5 + 10 Total = 28

So, there are 28 marbles in the box. The correct answer is (b) 28.

 

80. Candidates in a competitive examination consisted of 60% men and 40% women. 70% men and 75% women cleared the qualifying test and entered the final test where 80% men and 70% women were successful. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Success rate is higher for women,

(b) Overall success rate is below 50%.

(c) More men cleared the examination than women.

(d) Both (a) and (b) above are correct

Answer: C

The following is a step-by-step solution to the problem:

Step 1: Calculate the number of men and women who appeared for the examination.

  • Men: 60% of total candidates = 60% * 100 = 60
  • Women: 40% of total candidates = 40% * 100 = 40

Step 2: Calculate the number of men and women who cleared the qualifying test.

  • Men: 70% of 60 = 42
  • Women: 75% of 40 = 30

Step 3: Calculate the number of men and women who cleared the final test.

  • Men: 80% of 42 = 33.6
  • Women: 70% of 30 = 21

Step 4: Calculate the overall success rate for men and women.

  • Men: 33.6 / 60 * 100 = 56%
  • Women: 21 / 40 * 100 = 52.5%

Step 5: Determine which of the statements is correct.

(a) Success rate is higher for women: False. The success rate for men is higher than the success rate for women.

(b) Overall success rate is below 50%: False. The overall success rate is 55% (average of 56% and 52.5%).

(c) More men cleared the examination than women: True. 33.6 men cleared the examination, while only 21 women cleared the examination.

(d) Both (a) and (b) above are correct: False. Only statement (c) is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) More men cleared the examination than women.


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