1. Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

(a) Nat Bhairavi
(b) Kamavardhini
(c) Hanumatodi
(d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Answer: (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music corresponds to the major scale in Western music and uses all the natural notes without flats or sharps. In Carnatic music, the equivalent raga is Dheera Shankarabharanam. It is one of the most fundamental Melakarta ragas and forms the basis of several compositions in Carnatic classical tradition.

The other ragas mentioned belong to different tonal structures. Hanumatodi corresponds to Todi, Nat Bhairavi resembles Asavari, and Kamavardhini corresponds to Pantuvarali.

Therefore, Dheera Shankarabharanam is the correct equivalent of Bilawal.

 

 

2. The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

(a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness
(b) Providing support to Indian importers
(c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India
(d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Answer: (a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness

The Hilton-Young Commission was concerned with currency and financial stability in colonial India. The British fixed the rupee-sterling exchange rate mainly to protect imperial economic interests. A stable exchange rate ensured smooth transfer of “Home Charges,” pensions, administrative expenses, and remittances from India to Britain.

Maintaining India’s international creditworthiness was also important because Britain relied heavily on Indian revenues and trade balances. The policy was therefore more beneficial to British financial interests than to Indian economic development.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

 

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika.
2. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Emergence of urban life
2. Transition to money economy

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The references to coins such as kahapana and nikkha in Pali literature indicate the growing use of metallic currency in ancient India. Archaeological discoveries of punch-marked coins confirm the transition from a barter system to a monetized economy.

This monetization supported trade, taxation, market exchange, and craft specialization, which in turn contributed to the emergence of urban centres during the Mahajanapada period.

Therefore, the statements are associated with both the emergence of urban life and the transition to a money economy.

 

 

4. Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

The Nagara style is the North Indian temple architectural style characterized by curvilinear shikharas.

The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh is one of the earliest examples of Nagara architecture. Huchimalligudi Temple at Aihole also shows Nagara influence.

Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal is mainly Dravida in style, while Malegitti Shivalaya at Badami reflects mixed architectural features.

Hence, temples 2 and 3 are correct.

 

 

5. Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?

(a) Deva (gods)
(b) Yaksha (demi-gods)
(c) Manushya (humans)
(d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Answer: (b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

Jainism recognizes four major categories of existence: Deva (heavenly beings), Manushya (humans), Tiryancha (animals and plants), and Naraki (hell beings).

Yakshas are supernatural attendants or demi-gods but are not counted among the four principal forms of existence.

Therefore, Yaksha is the correct answer.

 

6. The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:

(a) A joyous folk dance
(b) Buddha in a meditative pose
(c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
(d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Answer: (a) A joyous folk dance

The Bagh Caves in Madhya Pradesh contain Buddhist paintings influenced by Ajanta traditions. The Hallisalasya painting is famous for depicting a lively folk dance scene with graceful movement and musical celebration.

It reflects the social and cultural life of the period rather than purely religious imagery.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

 

 

7. Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:

1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595–596).
2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The place-value system was one of India’s greatest mathematical contributions. Evidence from inscriptions such as the Mankani plates demonstrates its early use.

By the ninth century, the system had become widespread in inscriptions across India. Sanskrit inscriptions in Southeast Asia also show the diffusion of Indian mathematical knowledge abroad.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

 

8. Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns:

1. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.
2. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.
3. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Spindle-whorls indicate spinning activity, suggesting that textile production was carried out domestically and involved considerable labour.

The discovery of standardized weights and graduated scales demonstrates advanced scientific and mathematical understanding among the Harappans.

However, spacious houses with wells and courtyards do not indicate a common property system. In fact, they suggest organized private or family-based residential structures.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

 

9. Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

(a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while the Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.

(b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the talukdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.

(c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against exaction of rent.

(d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Answer: (c)

The Bardoli Satyagraha led by Vallabhbhai Patel in Gujarat was primarily a protest against increased land revenue assessments imposed by the British government.

The Eka Movement in Uttar Pradesh was directed against excessive rents, illegal levies, and exploitation by landlords.

The other options contain factual inaccuracies regarding leadership, geography, and Congress involvement.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

 

 

10. Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period:

1. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.
2. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle).
3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

The Rigveda contains references to devices like pulley wheels and water-drawing mechanisms, showing knowledge of irrigation from wells.

Oxen were used for ploughing and drawing water, supporting the role of animal power in agriculture.

However, references to tools like axes and sickles only indicate agricultural activity generally and do not directly support the statements regarding irrigation and well technology.

Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

 

 

11. Consider the following assertion:

In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.

Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?

1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3

Answer: (d) 3

The presence of the same dolphin species in both the Indus and Ganga systems suggests that these river systems may once have been interconnected.

This zoological evidence supports theories regarding shifts in river courses during geological history.

The other statements do not directly establish this assertion.

Hence, statement 3 alone is correct.

 

 

12. What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

(a) The meditation of the Buddha
(b) The Buddha’s First Sermon
(c) The Buddha’s Mahaparinibbana
(d) The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana

Answer: (a) The meditation of the Buddha

Early Buddhist art avoided direct representation of the Buddha in human form. Instead, symbolic representations were used.

An empty throne or seat symbolized the spiritual presence of the Buddha, particularly associated with meditation and enlightenment.

Other symbols included footprints, the Bodhi tree, and the Dharma Chakra.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

 

13. Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

1. Vitasta : Chenab
2. Asikni : Jhelum
3. Parushni : Ravi
4. Yavyavati : Beas

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 4 only

Answer: (c) 3 only

Parushni correctly corresponds to the Ravi River.

Vitasta actually refers to the Jhelum, not Chenab.

Asikni refers to Chenab, not Jhelum.

Yavyavati is not identified with the Beas.

Therefore, only pair 3 is correctly matched.

 

14. Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

The Amaravati Stupa was situated in the lower Krishna Valley in present-day Andhra Pradesh.

The Amaravati school of sculpture greatly influenced South Indian art and spread to Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia through trade and Buddhist cultural exchange.

However, the claim that it was second only to Sanchi in size is historically inaccurate.

Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

 

 

15. Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched?

1. Senguttuvan : Chera
2. Udiyanjeral : Chola
3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Senguttuvan was a Chera ruler and Nedunjeliyan belonged to the Pandya dynasty.

However, Udiyanjeral was also a Chera ruler, not Chola.

Therefore, only pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

 

16. Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4

Subhas Chandra Bose faced opposition from Gandhi and the Congress high command after his re-election as Congress President.

The Congress Left lacked unity and failed to provide strong support. Leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred preserving Congress unity rather than backing Bose.

The Communists, however, were not entirely opposed in the manner suggested in statement 3.

Hence, statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

 

 

17. Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only

The British removed taluqdars and attempted direct settlements with peasants because they believed taluqdars were exploitative intermediaries.

A Summary Revenue Settlement was introduced on the assumption that taluqdars were outsiders without legitimate claims.

However, the British did not allow taluqdars to retain arms and forts.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

 

 

18. Consider the following assertion:

The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms expanded communal representation and separate electorates.

Separate electorates were used by the British to divide Indian political opinion and weaken nationalism.

Many communities and deprived groups also saw separate electorates as opportunities for political representation.

Therefore, all three statements support the assertion.

 

19. Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

(a) Agra Gharana
(b) Gwalior Gharana
(c) Patiala Gharana
(d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Answer: (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur was one of the most distinguished vocalists of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana of Hindustani classical music.

This gharana is known for complex ragas and intricate melodic structures.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

 

20. In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni (‘mistress of the field’) originate?

(a) Rigveda
(b) Atharvaveda
(c) Ashtadhyayi
(d) Arthashastra

Answer: (b) Atharvaveda

The Atharvaveda contains references connected with agriculture, fertility, and ritual practices. The term kshetra-patni, meaning “mistress of the field,” occurs in this context.

It reflects the symbolic association between fertility, land, and prosperity in Vedic culture.

Hence, the correct answer is Atharvaveda.

 

21. Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate change:

1. India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
2. India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.
3. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Statement I is correct because India submitted its Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy under the UNFCCC framework to outline the pathway for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. The strategy emphasizes sustainable lifestyles, renewable energy expansion, low-carbon industrialization, energy efficiency, and climate justice. Therefore, it is indeed an important instrument for India’s long-term climate commitments.

Statement II is also correct. India’s Biennial Update Reports provide greenhouse gas inventory data and mitigation measures. The reduction in emissions during 2020 compared to 2019 was largely associated with reduced industrial and transportation activity during the COVID-19 pandemic period.

Statement III is incorrect because climate-resilient development is a broader concept that includes adaptation, sustainable infrastructure, disaster preparedness, ecological conservation, and long-term mitigation measures. It does not depend solely upon rapid short-term emission reduction targets.

Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

22. With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Statement 1 is correct. The Western Hoolock Gibbon is found in the forests of Northeast India, especially in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Tripura. It is listed as Endangered by the IUCN. Sanctuaries such as Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam are important habitats for this species.

Statement 2 is correct because gibbons are famous for brachiation, which is a form of movement where they swing from branch to branch using their long arms. They are among the most agile arboreal primates.

Statement 3 is incorrect because gibbons are not heavily built like gorillas. They are comparatively light-bodied apes adapted for tree movement.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

23. Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect. Mangroves indeed reduce tidal energy and protect coastlines from storms and erosion, but they are not preserved mainly to facilitate paddy cultivation in saline belts.

Statement 2 is incorrect because mangroves are salt-tolerant plants, not salt-sensitive. Their ecological role is not to convert coastal areas into freshwater aquaculture zones.

Statement 3 is correct. Mangroves act as natural barriers against cyclones, storm surges, and coastal erosion. They also support fisheries, fuelwood, honey collection, and other livelihood activities. Therefore, they contribute both to ecological resilience and economic sustainability.

Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

 

24. In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy?

1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.
3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect because Vizhinjam Port is not intended to function only as a domestic cargo hub. Instead, it aims to become a major international trans-shipment hub.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the main focus of Vizhinjam Port is cargo trans-shipment and global maritime logistics, not cruise tourism.

Statement 3 is correct. The port has a natural deep draft and is strategically located near major international shipping routes. India currently depends heavily on foreign ports like Colombo, Singapore, and Dubai for trans-shipment. Vizhinjam seeks to reduce this dependence and strengthen India’s maritime position.

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

 

25. Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

1. It has an antecedent drainage system.
2. It flows through three countries.
3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
4. It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following:

(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Indus
(c) Sutlej
(d) Teesta

Answer: (b) Indus

The Indus River originates in Tibet near Lake Mansarovar and flows through China, India, and Pakistan.

It is an antecedent river because it maintained its original course while the Himalayas were rising.

The Indus system is extremely important for irrigation, especially in Pakistan, where it sustains one of the world’s largest irrigation networks.

Unlike delta-forming rivers such as the Ganga, the Indus does not significantly form distributaries because it drains into the Arabian Sea through a comparatively narrow deltaic region.

Hence, the correct answer is Indus.

 

26. Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Statement 1 is correct because Uttar Pradesh shares boundaries with the maximum number of Indian states.

Statement 2 is correct because Rajasthan shares the longest international border with Pakistan.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Sikkim shares a boundary with West Bengal only, but it is not the only such state. Other states also have limited interstate boundaries.

Therefore, statement 3 alone is incorrect.

 

27. Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct. Nagaland’s Doyang region once witnessed large-scale hunting of Amur Falcons. Community awareness and conservation measures transformed the region into a global example of participatory wildlife protection.

Statement 2 is incorrect because migratory birds naturally navigate using biological and environmental cues. Tracking technology helps scientists monitor them but does not guide their migration.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Amur Falcons are migratory birds and do not permanently reside in India.

Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

 

28. Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

The Rainfed Area Development programme aims to improve livelihoods in rainfed farming areas through Integrated Farming Systems. It encourages crop diversification, livestock integration, horticulture, fisheries, and agroforestry.

Statement 1 is incorrect because RAD discourages monoculture and instead promotes diversified farming systems.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the programme mainly concerns rainfed agriculture rather than irrigated rice cultivation.

Statement 3 is correct as the initiative focuses on improving productivity and reducing climate vulnerability.

Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

 

29. Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Oeko-Tex certification is an internationally recognized textile certification that ensures products are free from harmful substances and produced under environmentally safe conditions.

Statement 1 is correct because certification enhances the marketability of Indian Eri Silk in environmentally conscious international markets.

Statement 2 is also correct because the certification confirms compliance with safety and sustainability standards.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

 

30. Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

1. Bahrain
2. Syria
3. Qatar
4. Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea.

  Bahrain — Correct
Bahrain lies in the Persian Gulf. Ships from Bahrain must pass through the Strait of Hormuz to reach the Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean.

  Syria — Incorrect
Syria lies on the Mediterranean Sea, not in the Persian Gulf. Its ships do not use the Strait of Hormuz.

  Qatar — Correct
Qatar is located in the Persian Gulf. Ships from Qatar must cross the Strait of Hormuz to access the Indian Ocean.

  Egypt — Incorrect
Egypt accesses the Indian Ocean mainly through the Red Sea and Suez Canal, not through the Strait of Hormuz.

31. Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

(a) Ecuador
(b) Peru
(c) Bolivia
(d) Colombia

Answer: (a) Ecuador

Tungurahua Volcano is located in Ecuador in the Andes mountain region of South America. The volcano is one of the most active volcanic systems in the country and is well known for its geological significance and biodiversity.

UNESCO recognized the region as a Global Geopark because of its unique volcanic landscape, ecological richness, and scientific importance. Ecuador contains several active volcanoes due to its location along the Pacific Ring of Fire.

Therefore, Ecuador is the correct answer.

 

 

32. With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Madhav National Park is situated in Madhya Pradesh near Shivpuri. In recent years, it was declared a Tiger Reserve as part of India’s efforts to expand tiger conservation landscapes.

Statement 1 is correct because Madhav National Park received Tiger Reserve status in 2025.

Statement 2 is also correct because Sakhya Sagar Lake, which lies within the park, has Ramsar Site recognition due to its ecological and wetland importance.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the park is entirely located within Madhya Pradesh and does not extend into Rajasthan.

Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

33. With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

The Andaman and Nicobar Islands experience a humid tropical maritime climate throughout the year. Temperatures remain moderate due to the surrounding sea, while humidity remains high.

Statement 1 is correct because the islands have a humid tropical coastal climate.

Statement 2 is also correct because the islands receive rainfall from both the Southwest Monsoon and the Northeast Monsoon.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the maximum rainfall usually occurs during the monsoon season between May and November rather than December to May.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

 

34. Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

The Peninsular Block is one of the oldest and most stable geological regions of India. It consists mainly of ancient crystalline rocks.

Statement 1 is correct because parts of the western coast underwent submergence due to tectonic and geological activity.

Statement 2 is correct because residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda Hills and Mahendragiri Hills are associated with the Peninsular Plateau region.

Statement 3 is incorrect because deep V-shaped valleys are generally features of youthful Himalayan rivers. Peninsular rivers are comparatively mature and flow over old plateau surfaces.

Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

 

35. Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India:.

1. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.
2. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.
3. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

The Sagarmala Programme is a major initiative of the Government of India aimed at promoting port-led development. It focuses on modernization of ports, logistics efficiency, coastal industrialization, and improved maritime connectivity.

Statement I is correct because the programme aims to achieve economic growth through sustainable and cost-effective coastal infrastructure.

Statement II is correct because improvements in coastal shipping, inland waterways, and better global port rankings indicate the effectiveness of the programme.

Statement III is also conceptually correct because Sagarmala 2.0 seeks to integrate innovation and future-oriented maritime strategies with the visions of Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047.

Among the relationships given, statement II validates statement I, and statement III extends the objectives of statement I into a broader innovation framework. Statement I does not contradict statement III.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

 

36. Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid):

1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
2. The species is endemic to North-east India.
3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Rhynchostylis retusa, commonly known as the Foxtail Orchid, is a beautiful flowering orchid found in tropical regions.

Statement 1 is correct because it is an epiphytic orchid, meaning it grows on trees without deriving nutrients from them.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the species is not endemic only to Northeast India. It is also found in other parts of South and Southeast Asia.

Statement 3 is correct because it is recognized as the State flower of both Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

 

 

37. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Maidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

1. They acted as army fortresses.
2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (c) 3 only

The Maidams are mound-burial structures constructed by the Ahom rulers of Assam. These structures contain the mortal remains of Ahom kings, queens, and nobles and reflect unique funerary architecture.

They were not military forts, recreational centres, or battle training grounds.

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

 

38. At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and “Blue Transformation”.

Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct?

(a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
(b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
(c) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
(d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Answer: (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) promotes the concept of “Four Betters” as part of its sustainable development strategy.

These are:

• Better Production
• Better Nutrition
• Better Environment
• Better Life

The framework is intended to support sustainable fisheries, aquaculture, food security, and improved livelihoods.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

 

 

39. Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.
2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Lake Turkana is located mainly in Kenya in East Africa and is the world’s largest permanent desert lake.

Statement 1 is correct because it is indeed considered the largest desert lake in the world.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the lake is not located in South Sudan nor near the Sahara Desert.

Statement 3 is correct because the lake is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is often called the “Jade Sea” due to its striking greenish-blue waters.

Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

 

 

40. Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

(a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project
(b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
(c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project
(d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Answer: (c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project in Meghalaya became the first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project in India.

The project focuses on community participation in forest conservation, reduction of deforestation, sustainable livelihoods, and carbon sequestration.

It is internationally recognized for combining environmental conservation with local community welfare.

Therefore, the correct answer is Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project.

 

 

41. Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for the disease.
2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Genetic medicine is an advanced branch of medical science that focuses on treating diseases by targeting defective genes. Many inherited disorders occur because certain genes do not function properly. Genetic medicines aim either to replace these faulty genes, repair them, or compensate for their malfunction.

Statement 1 is correct because genetic medicines are specifically designed to correct or compensate for defective genes responsible for disease conditions.

Statement 2 is also correct. To deliver genetic material into the body, scientists use carriers known as vectors. Engineered viruses are commonly used because they can enter cells efficiently. In recent years, lipid nanoparticles have also become important carriers, especially in mRNA-based therapies and vaccines.

Statement 3 is incorrect because genetic medicines do not alter the entire DNA sequence of a person. Usually, they target only specific genes or sections associated with a disease.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

 

42. Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Large Language Models are advanced artificial intelligence systems trained on enormous datasets to understand and generate human-like text.

Statement 1 is correct because LLMs work by predicting the next possible word or token in a sentence. They calculate probabilities for various words and select the most appropriate one based on training patterns.

Statement 2 is also correct because these models use mathematical optimization methods during training. Algorithms repeatedly adjust parameters to reduce prediction errors and improve performance.

Statement 3 is incorrect because LLMs are not automatically unbiased. Since they learn from large human-generated datasets, they can reflect biases, stereotypes, or inaccuracies present in the data.

Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

43. Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Stealth technology is used in military aircraft, ships, and missiles to reduce detectability by radar and other sensors.

Statement 1 is correct because stealth objects are designed with very small radar cross-sections. Their surfaces are coated with Radar Absorbing Materials (RAM) that absorb electromagnetic waves instead of reflecting them back to radar systems.

Statement 2 is also correct because stealth technology does not make an object completely invisible. Certain radar frequencies, especially low-frequency radars, may still detect stealth aircraft under some conditions.

Statement 3 is incorrect because metamaterials in stealth systems are intended to reduce or manipulate electromagnetic reflection and scattering, not increase it.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

 

44. Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Aircraft black boxes are crucial devices used in aviation accident investigations. They actually consist of two main units: the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and the Flight Data Recorder (FDR).

Statement 1 is incorrect because black boxes do not emit red light pulses underwater. Instead, they use an Underwater Locator Beacon that emits ultrasonic acoustic signals to help recovery teams locate them after crashes in water.

Statement 2 is correct because black boxes record both cockpit conversations and detailed flight performance data.

Statement 3 is also correct because the memory units are protected inside extremely strong materials such as stainless steel or titanium so that they can survive crashes, fires, and deep-sea pressure.

Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

 

 

45. Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Green hydrogen is considered an important clean fuel for future energy transitions because it can reduce dependence on fossil fuels and lower greenhouse gas emissions.

Statement 1 is incorrect because hydrogen produced from natural gas combined with carbon capture and storage is called blue hydrogen, not green hydrogen.

Statement 2 is correct because green hydrogen is produced through electrolysis of water using electricity generated from renewable sources such as solar or wind energy.

Statement 3 is also correct because India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission aims to significantly reduce greenhouse gas emissions and promote clean energy technologies by 2030.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

 

 

46. Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India’s space programme:

1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

India has increasingly encouraged private participation in the space sector to promote innovation and commercial growth.

Statement 1 is correct because IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) was established as an autonomous body to facilitate and regulate private sector participation in space activities.

Statement 2 is also correct because Agnikul Cosmos achieved a significant milestone by launching a rocket using a fully 3D-printed rocket engine.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Skyroot Aerospace has not developed liquid fuel systems for the GSLV. GSLV development remains under ISRO.

Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

47. Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Drone swarms involve groups of drones operating in a coordinated manner through communication and artificial intelligence systems.

Statement 1 is incorrect because drone swarms do not specifically depend on the Terahertz frequency band for communication. Various radio and wireless communication technologies may be used.

Statement 2 is correct because drones within a swarm communicate with one another to coordinate movement, navigation, and mission execution.

Statement 3 is also correct because GPS spoofing is a widely used countermeasure in which false GPS signals are transmitted to confuse or misdirect drones.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

 

48. Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

The GenomeIndia Project is a major scientific initiative aimed at studying the genetic diversity of India’s population.

Statement 1 is incorrect because it is not a part of the Human Genome Project. The Human Genome Project was an international initiative completed earlier to map the entire human genome.

Statement 2 is correct because the project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology under the Government of India.

Statement 3 is also correct because the main objective is to create a comprehensive catalogue of genetic diversity among Indian populations, which can improve medical research and precision healthcare.

Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

 

 

49. Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 physical qubits.
2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

The National Quantum Mission is India’s initiative to promote quantum technologies in computing, communication, sensing, and materials science.

Statement 1 is correct because the mission aims to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers ranging from 50 to 1000 physical qubits.

Statement 2 is also correct because the implementation strategy includes establishment of four Thematic Hubs in leading academic and national research institutions across India.

These hubs will focus on quantum computing, communication, sensing, and materials technologies.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

 

 

50. Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

India’s Deep Ocean Mission is an ambitious programme aimed at exploring and utilizing deep-sea resources and technologies.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the mission was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.

Statement 2 is correct because Matsya-6000 is a manned submersible vehicle designed to carry three persons for deep-sea exploration up to great ocean depths.

Statement 3 is also correct because Samudrayaan is an important project under the Deep Ocean Mission focusing on human underwater exploration.

Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

 

 

51. Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits.

Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions?

(a) Esprit de corps
(b) Equity
(c) Accountability
(d) Delegation

Answer: (c) Accountability

Mr. X discovered that the private contractor involved in vaccine distribution was compromising quality for profit. Despite pressure from vested interests, he reported the matter to the vigilance authority and stopped the contract in order to protect public welfare.

This action reflects the principle of accountability in public administration. Accountability means that public officials are answerable for their actions and decisions and must act in the interest of citizens rather than private interests.

The other options are less suitable. Esprit de corps refers to team spirit, equity refers to fairness and justice, and delegation means transfer of authority to subordinates. Mr. X’s actions primarily demonstrate responsibility and answerability to the public.

Therefore, accountability is the correct answer.

 

52. In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.

As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.

Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

The situation involves competing interests between tribal cultural rights and urban environmental needs. A balanced administrative response requires sensitivity, dialogue, and evidence-based decision-making.

Statement 1 is correct because successful mediation must begin with acknowledging the concerns and identity of affected communities. Ignoring cultural sentiments would deepen mistrust.

Statement 2 is incorrect because democratic governance cannot dismiss the rights of a minority community merely because the larger population benefits. Sustainable development requires inclusion and consultation.

Statement 3 is correct because a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform encourages participation, trust-building, and peaceful resolution.

Statement 4 is also correct because an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment provides objective evidence and promotes transparency.

Hence, statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

 

53. Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven.

The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.

What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
3. Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

Ms. X possesses confidential but unverified information about a contractor’s past conduct. Ethical governance requires balancing transparency with procedural fairness.

Statement 1 is not fully appropriate because immediate public disclosure of unverified allegations could damage reputations and create unnecessary controversy.

Statement 2 is also problematic because removing the contractor solely on allegations without due process would violate principles of fairness and natural justice.

Statement 3 is the most balanced approach. Limited disclosure to an oversight or ethics committee allows proper institutional scrutiny while maintaining confidentiality until facts are verified.

Thus, statement 3 alone is the most appropriate response.

 

 

54. ‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y’ pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

(a) ‘X’ is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
(b) The view of ‘Y’ that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.
(c) The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.
(d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.

Answer: (c) The views of both X and Y are correct

Article 13 of the Constitution defines “law” broadly. It includes ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, customs, and usages having the force of law.

X is correct in stating that ordinances, orders, rules, and regulations are included within the meaning of law.

Y is also correct because Article 13 explicitly includes customs and usages that have the force of law within the territory of India.

Therefore, both X and Y are correct.

 

 

55. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.
(b) There is no correct statement.
(c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
(d) There is only one correct statement.

Answer: (b) There is no correct statement

Statement 1 is incorrect because Article 393 officially states that the Constitution shall be called the “Constitution of India.”

Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 395 specifically repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 394 mentions the commencement of the Constitution on 26 January 1950.

Since all three statements are incorrect, there is no correct statement.

 

56. Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was enacted in 2016, not 2018.

Statement 2 is correct because Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan aims to improve accessibility in buildings, transport systems, and information and communication technology.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation functions under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, not under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

 

57. Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
(c) There is only one correct statement.
(d) All three statements are correct.

Answer: (a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2

Statement 1 is incorrect because tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram are governed under the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth Schedule.

Statement 2 is correct because some Scheduled Tribes enjoy exemptions from income tax on certain categories of income under special constitutional and legal provisions.

Statement 3 is also correct because the Constitution provides reservation for SCs and STs in Panchayats, including seats reserved for women belonging to these categories.

Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

 

 

58. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All the three statements are correct.
(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(c) There is only one correct statement.
(d) There is no correct statement.

Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement

Statement 1 is incorrect because unstarred questions require written answers, not oral answers.

Statement 2 is incorrect because starred questions require oral answers and permit supplementary questions.

Statement 3 is correct because supplementary questions are not allowed for unstarred questions.

Therefore, only one statement is correct.

 

 

59. Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are four correct statements.
(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
(c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
(d) There is no correct statement.

Answer: (d) There is no correct statement

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the committee consists of 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha, not the reverse.

Statement 3 is incorrect because no minister can be a member of the committee.

Statement 4 is incorrect because members are elected annually, not for a two-year term.

Hence, none of the statements are correct.

 

 

60. Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:

1. It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy.
3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Mission Sudarshan Chakra is related to strengthening India’s defence preparedness.

Statement 1 is correct because the mission aims to improve air defence, ballistic missile defence, and offensive aerial capabilities.

Statement 2 is also correct because the programme seeks to ensure rapid and precise defence responses while enhancing strategic autonomy.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the mission is not intended to create a nationwide civilian public-place security shield by 2035.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

61. Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:

1. ‘Maitri Setu’, built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct because Maitri Setu was constructed over the Feni River to connect Sabroom in Tripura, India, with Ramgarh in Bangladesh. The bridge is strategically important for trade and connectivity with Bangladesh and further access to Chittagong Port.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Nepal, not Myanmar. It links Uttarakhand in India with Nepal across the Kali River.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Mechi bridge connects Panitanki in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal, but the wording regarding “Panitanki Bypass” and approaches is not considered fully accurate in this context.

Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

 

 

62. Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only

Answer: (c) 1 only

The concept of Zero FIR allows a person to lodge an FIR at any police station irrespective of territorial jurisdiction, especially in urgent situations.

Statement 1 is correct because a Zero FIR can be filed even when the offence took place outside the jurisdiction of the police station where it is lodged.

Statement 2 is incorrect because preliminary enquiry provisions are separate and not specifically linked to Zero FIR in the way described.

Statement 3 is incorrect because furnishing information electronically is optional, not compulsory.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

 

 

63. With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

Sl. No.	Organisation	Function	Controlling Union Ministry
1.	Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)	To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies	Ministry of Home Affairs
2.	Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)	To investigate complex corporate frauds	Ministry of Finance
3.	Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)	To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy	Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) functions under the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance.

Statement 3 is also incorrect because although the CBI functions under the Department of Personnel and Training, the function described actually belongs more appropriately to agencies dealing with vigilance and economic integrity rather than the formal mandate of the CBI.

Thus, none of the rows are correctly matched.

 

 

64. Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?

1. Employment Policy Convention
2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (d) 3, 4 and 5

India has ratified several international labour and humanitarian conventions but has not ratified some others due to policy and sovereignty concerns.

Statement 1 is incorrect because India has ratified the Employment Policy Convention.

Statement 2 is incorrect because India has ratified the Abolition of Forced Labour Convention.

Statement 3 is correct because India has not ratified the International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families.

Statement 4 is also treated as correct in this context because India has not ratified certain related protocols and humanitarian provisions associated with the convention framework.

Statement 5 is correct because India has not ratified the Convention on Reduction of Statelessness.

Therefore, statements 3, 4 and 5 are correct.

 

 

65. Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:

1. The Summit’s intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras : People, Planning, and Progress.
2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.
3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect because the summit framework was not officially based on the three “Sutras” mentioned.

Statement 2 is also incorrect because the “Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI” described as a binding framework is not an officially recognized binding arrangement in the manner stated.

Statement 3 is correct because the New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact discussed several thematic “Chakras” or pillars related to inclusive and trustworthy AI development, including social empowerment and secure AI systems.

Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

 

66. Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
2. IMT Trilateral Highway
3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project connects India with Myanmar and enhances connectivity to Southeast Asia. Since Myanmar is a member of ASEAN, this project forms part of India-ASEAN cooperation.

The India-Myanmar-Thailand (IMT) Trilateral Highway is another major connectivity project aimed at strengthening trade and transport links between India and ASEAN countries.

The Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line is mainly a bilateral project between India and Bangladesh and is not specifically an ASEAN connectivity initiative.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

 

67. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Project Supported by India)

1. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project
   B. Restoration of Stor Palace
   C. District Hospital at Dickoya
   D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies

List II (Country)

1. Maldives
2. Afghanistan
3. Bhutan
4. Sri Lanka

Code:

A	B	C	D
(a)	1	4	2
(b)	3	2	4
(c)	3	4	2
(d)	1	2	4

 

Answer: (b)

• Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project — Bhutan
• Restoration of Stor Palace — Afghanistan
• District Hospital at Dickoya — Sri Lanka
• Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies — Maldives

India has undertaken these projects as part of its neighbourhood diplomacy and development cooperation initiatives.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

 

68. Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
2. T-90 MK-III Tanks
3. Akula Class Submarine

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

India manufactures Su-30 MKI fighter aircraft through Hindustan Aeronautics Limited under licensed production arrangements with Russia.

India also manufactures T-90 tanks domestically under technology transfer agreements.

However, Akula-class submarines are Russian nuclear-powered submarines leased by India and are not manufactured domestically.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

 

69. Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:

1. The ‘Colombo Process’ is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
2. The ‘Abu Dhabi Dialogue’ is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
3. The ‘Global Forum for Migration and Development’, created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

The Colombo Process is a consultative mechanism among labour-sending countries and is non-binding in nature. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Abu Dhabi Dialogue is correctly described as a voluntary and non-binding consultative process among labour-origin and destination countries in Asia.

The Global Forum for Migration and Development was proposed under UN leadership and operates as a voluntary, non-binding platform for dialogue on migration and development issues.

Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

 

 

70. Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:

1. World Food Programme
2. United Nations Children’s Fund
3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
4. International Labour Organisation

How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer: (c) 3

Among the organizations listed:

• World Food Programme received the Nobel Peace Prize once.
• UNICEF received the Nobel Peace Prize once.
• UNHCR received the Nobel Peace Prize twice, in 1954 and 1981.
• International Labour Organization received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 and has been associated with international peace and labour reforms recognized globally.

Thus, three organizations in the list have received Nobel recognition twice or on multiple occasions in institutional context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

 

71. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation)

1. UNMIL
   B. MINURCAT
   C. MINUSTAH
   D. UNMISET

List II (Period of Operation)

1. 2007 – 2010
2. 2002 – 2005
3. 2003 – 2018
4. 2004 – 2017

Code:

A	B	C	D
(a)	3	4	1
(b)	3	1	4
(c)	2	1	4
(d)	2	4	1

 

Answer (b)

The question asks for correct matching between UN peacekeeping missions and their operational periods.

• UNMIL (United Nations Mission in Liberia) operated from 2003–2018.
• MINURCAT (United Nations Mission in the Central African Republic and Chad) functioned from 2007–2010.
• MINUSTAH (United Nations Stabilization Mission in Haiti) operated from 2004–2017.
• UNMISET (United Nations Mission of Support in East Timor) functioned from 2002–2005.

Thus, the correct matching is:

• A → 3
• B → 1
• C → 4
• D → 2

Hence, option (b) is correct.

 

72. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment)

1. BIMSTEC        Cultural Industries Observatory
   B. BIMSTEC    Energy Centre
   C. BIMSTEC      Centre for Weather and Climate
   D. BIMSTEC     Technology Transfer Facility

List II (Location)

1. NOIDA
2. Bengaluru
3. Colombo
4. Thimphu

Code:

A	B	C	D
(a)	3	2	1
(b)	3	1	2
(c)	4	2	1
(d)	4	1	2

 

Answer: (a)

BIMSTEC has established various specialized centres in member countries to promote regional cooperation.

• The BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory is located in Colombo, Sri Lanka.
• The BIMSTEC Energy Centre is situated in Bengaluru, India.
• The BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate is located in NOIDA, India.
• The BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility is located in Thimphu, Bhutan.

Therefore, the correct matching is:

• A → 3
• B → 2
• C → 1
• D → 4

Hence, option (a) is correct.

 

73. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Indian Army Corps	Headquarters
(a) 3 Corps	Dimapur
(b) 4 Corps	Tezpur
(c) 14 Corps	Leh
(d) 33 Corps	Srinagar

 

 

Answer: (d) 33 Corps — Srinagar

The Indian Army has several Corps with specific regional headquarters.

• 3 Corps is headquartered at Dimapur.
• 4 Corps is headquartered at Tezpur.
• 14 Corps is headquartered at Leh.

However, 33 Corps is headquartered at Sukna in West Bengal, not Srinagar.

Therefore, option (d) is the incorrectly matched pair.

 

74. Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Statement 1 is correct because the implementation period of the revamped scheme extends from 1 April 2021 to 31 March 2026.

Statement 2 is also correct because the programme seeks to improve governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions and align local governance with Sustainable Development Goals.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Central funding is not uniformly 100% for all states and Union Territories. Funding patterns differ depending on category and region.

Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

75. Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

1. Belarus
2. Poland
3. Germany
4. Switzerland

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Germany and Poland are members of the European Union.

Belarus is not a member of the EU, and Switzerland, although closely associated economically with Europe, is also not a member.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

 

76. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (INTERPOL Notice)

1. Silver Notice
   B. Blue Notice
   C. Black Notice
   D. Green Notice

List II (Description)

1. To seek information on unidentified bodies
2. To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation
3. To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety
4. To identify and trace criminal assets

Code:

A	B	C	D
(a)	3	1	2
(b)	3	2	1
(c)	4	2	1
(d)	4	1	2

 

Answer: (c)

INTERPOL uses different coloured notices for international law enforcement cooperation.

• Silver Notice is used to identify and trace criminal assets.
• Blue Notice is issued to collect additional information about a person’s identity, activities, or location in relation to criminal investigations.
• Black Notice seeks information about unidentified bodies.
• Green Notice provides warnings regarding persons considered threats to public safety because of criminal activities.

Thus, the correct matching is:

• A → 4
• B → 2
• C → 1
• D → 3

Hence, option (c) is correct.

 

77. Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?

1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

NIRANTAR is a collaborative institutional platform under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change aimed at strengthening ecological resilience and natural resource management.

Statement 1 is correct because Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is one of the verticals under the platform, with the Botanical Survey of India acting as the lead institution.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the Central Zoo Authority is not the lead institution for Research and Management of Ecosystem Services.

Statement 3 is correct because Capacity Development Support is a vertical under NIRANTAR and the Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal serves as the lead institution.

Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

 

 

78. The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?

1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 only

Answer: (c) 3 and 4

The question asks which statements are not correct regarding outcomes of the German Chancellor’s visit.

Statement 1 is correct because cooperation agreements involving Ayurveda and academic collaboration were part of bilateral engagement.

Statement 2 is also correct because sports cooperation, including hockey development, formed part of India-Germany cooperation initiatives.

Statement 3 is incorrect because no formal Indo-Pacific bilateral dialogue mechanism was established during the visit in the manner described.

Statement 4 is also incorrect because the opening of an Honorary Consul office in Lucknow was not an announced outcome.

Therefore, statements 3 and 4 are not correct.

 

 

79. Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?

1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
2. It is India’s first homegrown 1·0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

DHRUV64 is an indigenous microprocessor initiative related to India’s semiconductor and computing ecosystem.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the description regarding the “third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme” is not accurate.

Statement 2 is correct because DHRUV64 is recognized as India’s first indigenous 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Hence, statement 2 only is correct.

 

 

80. The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?

1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.
2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

The Bureau of Indian Standards introduced a new national standard to improve the testing and assessment of bomb disposal systems.

Statement 1 is correct because the standard is identified as IS 19445 : 2025.

Statement 2 is also correct because the standard aims to improve interoperability and compatibility of bomb disposal equipment among various agencies.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the standard was not developed in collaboration with the Russian institute mentioned in the statement.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

 

81. ‘X’, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify ‘X’:

(a) Michel H. Devoret
(b) Richard Robson
(c) John Clarke
(d) Joel Mokyr

Answer: (d) Joel Mokyr

Joel Mokyr is an economic historian born in the United Kingdom who later became associated with academic institutions in the United States. At the time the Nobel Prize was announced, he was serving as a professor at an American university.

Michel H. Devoret and John Clarke are primarily associated with physics and quantum research, while Richard Robson does not fit the description provided.

Therefore, Joel Mokyr is the correct answer.

 

82. Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
3. There is a limitation on the number of ‘Wild Cards’ a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Grand Slam tournaments are the four major tennis championships — Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, and US Open.

Statement 1 is incorrect because although the tournaments cooperate on several administrative and promotional matters, they do not function under one single shared governance structure.

Statement 2 is correct because internationally ranked players above the minimum age requirement are eligible to participate, subject to ranking and qualification rules.

Statement 3 is also correct because there are restrictions on the number of wild card entries available in Grand Slam tournaments. Wild cards are limited invitations granted by organizers.

Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

 

83. Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?

(a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat

(b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam

(c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh

(d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Answer: (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh

India has recently promoted semiconductor manufacturing through various public-private collaborations.

The CG Power-Renesas-STARS project is located in Gujarat.

Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test facilities are planned in Assam.

SicSem Pvt. Ltd. is associated with Odisha.

However, the HCL-Foxconn semiconductor project is not located in Madhya Pradesh, making this pair incorrectly matched.

Therefore, option (c) is correct.

 

 

84. Which of the following statements with regard to India’s indigenous new high resolution weather model, the ‘Bharat Forecast System’, is/are correct?

1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

The Bharat Forecast System is India’s indigenous high-resolution weather forecasting model aimed at improving localized weather prediction.

Statement 1 is correct because the system seeks to generate highly localized forecasts even at Panchayat cluster levels, helping agriculture, disaster management, and local planning.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the model was not developed solely by IIT Delhi. It involved broader collaboration among meteorological and scientific institutions.

Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

 

85. Consider the following statements with regard to the film ‘Boong’:

1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

The film “Boong” received international recognition and won a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.

Statement 1 is correct because the film won the BAFTA award.

Statement 2 is also correct because the film was directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.

Statement 3 is incorrect because it was not the first Indian film ever to receive recognition in this category in the broader historical context.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

 

 

86. Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4

Blockchain technology is a decentralized digital ledger system where records are stored securely across multiple computers.

Statement 1 is correct because blockchain records can be shared with authorized stakeholders while maintaining integrity and transparency.

Statement 2 is also correct because copies of the ledger are distributed across networked computers and are continuously synchronized.

Statement 3 is incorrect because a consortium blockchain is not simply a blend of public and private blockchains. It is a permissioned blockchain controlled by a group of organizations.

Statement 4 is correct because cryptographic and mathematical algorithms make accepted records extremely difficult to alter or delete.

Hence, statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

 

 

87. An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn’t keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called :

(a) Dropshipping Model
(b) Affiliate Revenue Model
(c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model
(d) Agency Revenue Model

Answer: (a) Dropshipping Model

In the dropshipping model, the seller markets and prices products but does not maintain physical inventory. When a customer places an order, the seller transfers the order details to a third-party supplier who ships the goods directly to the customer.

This reduces inventory and storage costs for the seller.

Therefore, the correct answer is Dropshipping Model.

 

88. Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

(a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
(b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
(c) Access, Usage, and Quality
(d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Answer: (c) Access, Usage, and Quality

The Financial Inclusion Index developed by the Reserve Bank of India measures the extent of financial inclusion across the country.

The three major dimensions used in the index are:

• Access to financial services,
• Usage of financial services,
• Quality of services provided.

These indicators collectively assess how effectively people are integrated into the formal financial system.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

 

89. Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India’s ‘Open Network for Digital Commerce’ (ONDC) initiative?

(a) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
(b) To replace private e-commerce players
(c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
(d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Answer: (c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks

ONDC is an initiative of the Government of India aimed at democratizing digital commerce.

Instead of creating a new e-commerce platform, ONDC seeks to establish open standards that allow buyers and sellers across different digital platforms to interact seamlessly.

Its main objective is to reduce monopolistic dominance and increase opportunities for small businesses through interoperability.

Therefore, option (c) is correct.

 

90. Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?

(a) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.

(b) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.

(c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.

(d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Answer: (d)

UPI is a digital payment interface that transfers money between bank accounts instantly, whereas the Digital Rupee is a Central Bank Digital Currency issued directly by the Reserve Bank of India.

Statement (a) is correct because Digital Rupee functions similarly to sovereign currency in digital form.

Statement (b) is also correct because UPI transactions involve settlement between bank accounts, while Digital Rupee transactions involve transfer between digital wallets.

Statement (c) is correct because UPI transactions are reflected in bank records, whereas wallet-to-wallet CBDC transactions may not appear in conventional bank statements.

Statement (d) is incorrect because in the case of Digital Rupee, the liability ultimately rests with the central bank issuing the currency, unlike UPI where commercial banks are involved in settlement systems.

Therefore, option (d) is the not correct statement.

 

91. Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.
2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24×7 access, promoting financial inclusion.
3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Real-World Asset (RWA) tokenization refers to the conversion of physical or real financial assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology. These assets may include real estate, commodities, bonds, artworks, or other valuable assets.

Statement 1 is correct because tokenization essentially means representing ownership of real-world assets in digital form on a blockchain network.

Statement 2 is also correct because blockchain-based tokenization allows assets to be traded digitally at any time, thereby enabling 24×7 accessibility and potentially improving financial inclusion.

Statement 3 is correct because tokenization can make expensive investment opportunities accessible to smaller investors by enabling fractional ownership. This can widen participation in high-growth investment sectors.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

 

92. A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called :

(a) Green Bond
(b) Social Bond
(c) Sustainability Bond
(d) Sovereign Bond

Answer: (c) Sustainability Bond

A Sustainability Bond is a financial instrument whose proceeds are used for both environmental and social projects.

Green Bonds are meant only for environmental projects, while Social Bonds are intended for social welfare projects.

Since the question specifically mentions financing a combination of environmental and social projects, the correct term is Sustainability Bond.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

 

93. Which of the following statements about M1xchange’s role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.
2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.
3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

M1xchange is a Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform that helps Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises obtain quicker access to working capital.

Statement 1 is incorrect because M1xchange does not primarily provide collateral-based loans.

Statement 2 is correct because it facilitates discounting of invoices and bills of exchange, allowing MSMEs to receive payments faster.

Statement 3 is incorrect because M1xchange is not a credit rating agency.

Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

 

94. Which one of the following best describes the ‘Crowding Out Effect’ in the context of fiscal policy?

(a) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending

(b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

(c) A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment

(d) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Answer: (b)

The crowding out effect occurs when increased government borrowing raises interest rates in the economy. Higher interest rates make borrowing more expensive for private businesses and investors, leading to a reduction in private investment.

This situation is commonly discussed in fiscal policy when governments finance deficits through heavy borrowing.

Therefore, option (b) correctly describes the crowding out effect.

 

 

95. Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Rare Earth Elements are crucial for modern technologies such as artificial intelligence systems, robotics, electric vehicles, renewable energy equipment, and advanced defence and space technologies.

Statement 1 is correct because REEs are extensively used in advanced technological applications.

Statement 2 is incorrect because although China is the leading producer of REEs, India is not the second-largest producer.

Statement 3 is correct because the Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission to strengthen self-reliance in the critical minerals sector.

Statement 4 is incorrect because Rare Earth Elements consist of 17 elements, not 13.

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

 

96. Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

1. ‘Aviation Hull Insurance’ covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Aviation Hull Insurance is a type of insurance that covers physical damage to aircraft, including the body, engines, and onboard equipment.

Thus, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is also correct because under the Montreal Convention of 1999, airlines are subject to strict liability in passenger death or injury cases up to a certain limit, without requiring victims’ families to prove negligence.

Hence, both statements are correct.

 

 

97. Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.
2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Crowdfunding refers to raising small amounts of money from a large number of people through online platforms or social media for a project or business idea.

Statement 1 is correct because this is the basic concept of crowdfunding.

Statement 2 is also correct because crowdfunding enables SMEs and startups to access funds without going through lengthy and expensive traditional financing procedures.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

 

98. With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:

Sl. No.	Committee	Objective	Organization under which it was formed
1.	R.N. Malhotra Committee	Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India	Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
2.	L.C. Gupta Committee	Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India	Securities and Exchange Board of India
3.	Urjit R. Patel Committee	Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector	Reserve Bank of India
4.	Y.H. Malegam Committee	Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India	Reserve Bank of India

In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?

(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (d) 2 and 4

The L.C. Gupta Committee was formed under SEBI and prepared the framework for introducing derivatives trading in India. Hence, row 2 is correctly matched.

The Y.H. Malegam Committee was constituted by the Reserve Bank of India to examine issues relating to the microfinance sector. Therefore, row 4 is also correctly matched.

The R.N. Malhotra Committee on insurance sector reforms predated IRDAI and was not formed under IRDAI.

The Urjit Patel Committee dealt with monetary policy framework and inflation targeting, not housing sector lending reforms.

Hence, rows 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

 

 

99. Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:

1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 4

NBFCs are financial institutions that provide various financial services but differ from banks in important ways.

Statement 1 is correct because NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits like savings or current account deposits.

Statement 2 is incorrect because some categories of NBFCs may be exempt from registration requirements under specific conditions.

Statement 3 is incorrect because NBFCs are not part of the payment and settlement system in the same way as banks and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves.

Statement 4 is correct because deposits in NBFCs are not covered under DICGC deposit insurance protection.

Therefore, statements 1 and 4 are correct.

 

100. Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

The Multidimensional Poverty Index measures poverty across multiple dimensions such as health, education, and living standards rather than only income.

Statement 1 is correct because MPI is calculated using the Alkire-Foster methodology.

Statement 2 is also correct because NITI Aayog’s MPI framework uses twelve indicators across different dimensions.

Statement 3 is incorrect because indicators such as maternal health and bank account are not common to both the UNDP global MPI and NITI Aayog’s national MPI in the manner described.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.