(a) Unity and Discipline

(b) Unity and Integrity

(c) Unity and Command

(d) Unity and Service

Answer – (A)

The motto of the National Cadet Corps (NCC) is "Unity and Discipline". The NCC is a youth organization run by the Ministry of Defence, Government of India. It was established in 1948 with the objective of inculcating the qualities of discipline, patriotism, and national integration among the youth of India.

 

(a) Department of Official Languages

(b) Department of Border Management

(c) Department of Jammu and Kashmir Affairs

(d) Department of Legal Affairs

Answer – (D)

Under the Ministry of Home Affairs, there are six departments:

Department of Border Management

Department of Internal Security

Department of Jammu, Kashmir, and Ladakh Affairs

Department of Home

Department of Official Language

Department of States

 

1. India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
2. The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal Ministry in the Government of India for the UNCCD.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (A)

India became a signatory of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) on October 14, 1994, and ratified it in October 1996.

The Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change is responsible for implementing the provisions of the UNCCD, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

The UNCCD is one of the three conventions that emerged as a result of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change(UNFCCC).

The primary goal of the UNCCD is to combat climate change-induced desertification and alleviate the impacts of drought in countries facing desertification challenges.

The UNCCD stands as the only legally binding agreement connecting sustainable land management to environmental concerns.

 

(a) Article 110

(b) Article 111

(c) Article 112

(d) Article 113

Answer – C

Under Article 112 of the Indian Constitution, the government is obligated to present a financial statement detailing the projected sources of revenue and expenses for a financial year from April 1 to March 31 before the Parliament. Interestingly, the term 'Budget' is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. The first Union Budget was presented by R.K. Shanmukham Chetty on November 27, 1947.

While budgets were traditionally presented in a paper format, Uttar Pradesh set a precedent by becoming the first state in India to present a Digital Budget.

 

(a) Colombo

(b) Islamabad

(c) Kathmandu

(d) Dhaka

Answer – (D)

SAARC was founded in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.

SAARC Members:

Afghanistan

Bangladesh

Bhutan

India

Maldives

Nepal

Pakistan

Sri Lanka

(a) Brazil

(b) Canada

(c) Russia

(d) India

Answer – (B)

The New Development Bank (NDB) is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS countries (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) in 2015.

The NDB's mission is to "mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies, in accordance with their respective national priorities".

The NDB is headquartered in Shanghai, China.

 

(a) Department of Financial Services

(b) Institute of Government Accounts and Finance

(c) Controller General of Accounts

(d) National Institute of Financial Management

Answer – C

The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a web-based online software application that helps the government track, account, monitor, report, and ensure transparency in payments made by government departments to implement various schemes.

The PFMS was developed by the Controller General of Accounts (CGA), an apex body responsible for the accounting and reporting of all Central Government transactions.

 

.    List I (Location)                                      List I (Institute)

1. National Institute of Ayurveda  1. Chennai
2. National Institute of Homoeopathy 2. Bengaluru
3. National Institute of Unani Medicine 3. Kolkata
4. National Institute of Siddha 4. Jaipur

Code :

.    A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 1 3 2 4

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 4 2 1 3

Answer – C

The National Institute of Ayurveda is located in Jaipur, Rajasthan.

The National Institute of Homoeopathy is located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.

The National Institute of Unani Medicine is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka.

The National Institute of Siddha is located in Kolkata, West Bengal.

 

1. It is a joint venture (not for profit) company.
2. It is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

Invest India is a national investment promotion and facilitation agency of India. It is a not-for-profit company that operates under the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce and Industries. Invest India was established in 2010 as a joint venture between the DIPP, the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), and the state governments of India.

 

(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

(b) Ministry of Science and Technology

(c) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

(d) Ministry of Home Affairs

Answer – C

The National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL) functions under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

The NDTL is a laboratory that conducts doping tests on athletes. It is located in New Delhi and was established in 2005. The NDTL is responsible for testing athletes competing in national and international events, including the Olympics.

The NDTL is headed by the Chief Executive Officer, who is generally a Sports Secretary. The NDTL is affiliated with the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) and the International Olympic Committee (IOC).

 

(a) 6 phases

(b) 7 phases

(c) 8 phases

(d) 9 phases

Answer – (B)

(a) Its permanent Secretariat is located at Jeddah.

(b) It endeavours to safeguard and protect interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world.

(c) It is the largest intergovernmental organization of the world.

(d) It has consultative and cooperative relations with the UN.

Answer – C

The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is the second-largest inter-governmental international organization globally, following the United Nations. It was founded in 1969 and includes 57 member countries from the Muslim world. Notably, India is not among the member countries of the OIC.

 

(a) Karolina Pliskova

(b) Johanna Konta

(c) Naomi Osaka

(d) Serena Williams

Answer – (A)

 

1. INS Kolkata
2. INS Shakti
3. INS Vikrant

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) I only

Answer – (B)

The Singapore India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX) is an annual naval exercise between India and Singapore. It was first held in 1993 and has been held every year since then. The objective of SIMBEX is to promote cooperation between the two navies and to enhance their interoperability.

In 2019, the Indian Navy deployed its Kolkata Class Destroyers (INS Kolkata and INS Shakti) for SIMBEX. These ships are equipped with state-of-the-art weapons and sensors, and they are capable of conducting a wide range of maritime operations.

 

(a) Boxing

(b) Judo

(c) Chess

(d) Badminton

Answer – (D)

Triples is a new format of badminton that was introduced by the Badminton World Federation (BWF) in 2023. In triples, three players play on each team, with one female player being mandatory. The game is played on a smaller court with a modified shuttlecock.

 

(a) H.R. Khan

(b) Nandan Nilekani

(c) N.R. Narayana Murthy

(d) Sanjay Jain

Answer – (B)

The High-Level Committee on Deepening of Digital Payments was set up by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in January 2023. The committee is chaired by Nandan Nilekani, who is the former Chairman of the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI).

 

(a) Disaster Reduction

(b) Peace Keeping

(c) Health Services

(d) Poverty Alleviation

Answer – (A)

The Sasakawa Award was established in 1985 by the Nippon Foundation and the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR). The award is given annually to individuals or organizations that have made outstanding contributions to disaster risk reduction.

The award is named after Ryoichi Sasakawa, the founder of the Nippon Foundation. Sasakawa was a Japanese philanthropist who was committed to disaster risk reduction. He believed that disaster risk reduction was essential for the development of safe and resilient societies.

 

(a) She was the first Indian to play cricket for an English County Club.

(b) She became the first female ICC match referee.

(c) She was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award for the year 2019.

(d) She was the recipient of the Booker Prize in the year 2019.

Answer – (B)

In 2019, Lakshmi was appointed as the match referee for the opening match in the third series of the ICC Men's World Cup League 2. The match was held between the United Arab Emirates and the United States of America at Sharjah Cricket Stadium. This made her the first woman to officiate a men's ODI match.

 

(a) Joko Widodo

(b) Prabowo Subianto

(c) Sandiaga Uno

(d) Jusuf Kalla

Answer – (A)

Joko Widodo, popularly known as Jokowi, was re-elected as the President of Indonesia in 2020. He defeated Prabowo Subianto, a retired general, by a margin of 55.5% to 44.5%. Jokowi's victory was seen as a repudiation of Prabowo's populist and nationalist agenda.

 

(a) NRI Day

(b) National Youth Day

(c) National Technology Day

(d) National Anti-Terrorism Day

Answer – (D)

May 21 is observed as National Anti-Terrorism Day in India. It is a day to remember the victims of terrorism and to reaffirm India's commitment to fighting this scourge.

On May 21, 1991, former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi was assassinated by a suicide bomber at an election rally in Sriperumbudur, Tamil Nadu.

 

1. The Indian Factory Act (First)
2. The Vernacular Press Act
3. The Morley-Minto Reforms
4. The Cornwallis Code

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 4, 2, 1, 3

(b) 2, 4, 1, 3

(c) 3, 4, 1, 2

(d) 2, 1,  3, 4

Answer – (A)

Here is the chronological order of the implementation of these Acts:

The Cornwallis Code was passed in 1793 by Viceroy Lord Cornwallis.

The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878 under Lord Lytton.

The Indian Factory Act was passed in 1881 by Lord Rippon.

The Morley-Minto Reforms were announced in 1909.

The Cornwallis Code was the first major piece of legislation passed by the British in India. It established a system of civil and criminal justice that was based on the British model. The Indian Factory Act was passed to regulate factory working hours and to improve the working conditions of factory workers. The Vernacular Press Act was passed to suppress the freedom of the vernacular press in India. The Morley-Minto Reforms were a set of reforms that introduced a limited form of self-government to India.

 

(a) Nagaland

(b) Mizoram

(c) Sikkim

(d) Manipur

Answer – (A)

Special provisions provided by Article 371 for various states in India:

Nagaland: Article 371A gives Nagaland special status in matters related to its religious and social practices, customary law and procedure, civil and criminal justice, and ownership and transfer of land and its resources.

Maharashtra and Gujarat: Article 371 gives the Governors of these states special powers to set up development boards in regions like Vidarbha, Marathwada, and Kutch.

Assam: Article 371B allows the President to create a committee in the Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of members elected from tribal areas.

Manipur: Similar to Article 371B, Manipur also has a special provision for a committee in its Legislative Assembly for tribal areas.

Andhra Pradesh: Articles 371D and 371E ensure equitable opportunities and facilities for employment and education in Andhra Pradesh.

Sikkim: Article 371F mandates that the Sikkim Legislative Assembly must have at least 30 members.

Mizoram: Article 371G mandates that the Mizoram Legislative Assembly must have at least 40 members.

Arunachal Pradesh: Article 371H mandates that the Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly must have at least 30 members.

Goa: Article 371I mandates that the Goa Legislative Assembly must have at least 30 members.

Hyderabad-Karnataka region: Article 371J grants special status to six backward districts in the Hyderabad-Karnataka region.

(a) Eight

(b) Seven

(c) Six

(d) Five

Answer – (D)

Five Zonal Council were set up vide Part-III of the States Reorganization Act, 1956. These are:

Northern Zonal Council

Central Zonal Council

Eastern Zonal Council

Western Zonal Council

Southern Zonal Council

The North Eastern Council was established through the North Eastern Council Act, 1972. And the state of Sikkim was included in the North Eastern Council through the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002.

So, currently there are six Zonal Councils in India.

 

(a) Article 53

(b) Article 74

(c) Article 361

(d) Article 363

Answer – C

Article 361 of the Constitution of India provides that the President of India shall not be answerable to any court in India for the exercise of the powers of his office. This means that the President cannot be sued in court for any actions he takes while in office. This immunity extends to the Governor of a state as well.

 

(a) Article 145 of the Constitution of India

(b) Article 348 of the Constitution of India

(c) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966

(d) An Act passed by the Parliament

Answer – (B)

Article 348(1) of the Constitution of India states that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in the English language until Parliament by law otherwise provides. This means that English is the language used in all proceedings in the Supreme Court unless a law passed by Parliament specifies otherwise.

 

(a) 10% of the total number of members of the Parliament

(b) 15% of the total number of members of the Parliament

(c) 10% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha

(d) 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha

Answer – (D)

As per Article 75 of the Indian Constitution, the President appoints the Prime Minister, and the other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

In 2003, the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act was introduced, which stated that the total number of ministers in the Union Council, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the combined strength of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

However, there is an exception for the Government of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi. Under Section 239A, the Council of Ministers in Delhi cannot exceed 10% of the total members in the Legislative Assembly.

 

(a) Limited geographical extent

(b) Dry summer

(c) Dry winter

(a) Moderate temperature

Answer – (B)

The Mediterranean climate is characterized by hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters. This is due to the influence of the subtropical high pressure system, which brings dry air to the region in summer. The high pressure system weakens in winter, allowing moist air from the Atlantic Ocean to move into the region, bringing rain.

 

(a) Ganga

(b) Tista

(c) Barak

(d) Brahmaputra

Answer – (D)

The Tsangpo River, also known as the Brahmaputra River, takes a U-turn at the Namcha Barwa mountain peak in the eastern Himalayas before entering the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. In Arunachal Pradesh, the river is called the Dihang or Siang River.

 

(a) The Working Committee of the Indian National Congress decided that Congress should play a crucial role in realising the independence of India

(b) The Socialist party decided to play foremost part in anti-imperialist struggle

(c) Revolutionary socialist Batukeshwar Dutt put forth a ten-point plan to work for the success of anti-imperialist front

(d) It was a Communist party document, according to which the National Congress could play a great part and a foremost part in realising the anti-imperialist people’s front

Answer – (D)

The Dutt-Bradley Thesis was a Communist Party document, written by Rajni Palme Dutt and Ben Bradley, in 1938. The thesis argued that the Indian National Congress could play a great part and a foremost part in realising the anti-imperialist people’s front.

 

(a) Bundelkhand

(b) Karnataka

(c) Chota Nagpur

(d) Madras Presidency

Answer – C

Mundari Khuntkatti is a customary institution found among the Mundas of Chotanagpur region, which provides ownership of land among all the families of the same killi (clan), who cleared the forest and made land cultivable. This old age institution also provides an identity of being a Munda and their country.

 

(a) William H. McNeill

(b) WI. Thomas

(c) Rachel Carson

(d) David Cannadine

Answer – (A)

William H. cNeill was an American historian who specialized in global history. He is best known for his book Plagues and Peoples, which was published in 1976. The book examines the role of disease in human history. McNeill argued that diseases have played a major role in shaping human societies, and that they have been a major cause of war, migration, and social change.

 

(a) Lord Curzon

(b) William Bentinck

(c) Lord Minto

(d) Lord Rippon

Answer – C

The Indian Agriculture Services was constituted in 1906, during the viceroyalty of Lord Minto II.

The Indian Agricultural Research Institute, Pusa was established in 1905, during the viceroyalty of Lord Curzon.

 

(a) Sanskrit

(b) Tamil

(c) Bengali

(d) Oriya

Answer – C

The Chandimangala is a type of Mangalkavya, which is a genre of Bengali literature that flourished in the 16th and 17th centuries. It was composed by the Bengali poet Mukundaram Chakravarti in the 16th century.

 

(a) Khrushchev

(b) Bulganin

(c) Suslov

(d) Malenkov

Answer – (A)

The Soviet leader who declared that China was responsible for the Sino-Indian War of 1962 was Nikita Khrushchev. He was the leader of the Soviet Union from 1958 to 1964.

In a statement issued on December 14, 1962, Khrushchev said that China had "provoked" the war and that it was a "grave mistake" on the part of the Chinese leadership

 

1. It was launched in the year 2018.
2. Its objective is to foster innovation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (D)

The "Make in India" initiative is a significant flagship program launched by the Government of India in 2014. Its primary objective is to position India as a prominent investment destination and a global hub for design, manufacturing, and innovation. The initiative is driven by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, which operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

The core focus of the "Make in India" campaign is to encourage and support innovation in the country. By fostering innovation, the government aims to boost various sectors and industries, leading to economic growth and job creation. One of the ambitious goals set by the program is to increase the contribution of manufacturing to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) from the existing 16% to 25% by the year 2025.

(a) Karnataka

(b) Telangana

(c) Jammu and Kashmir

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer – (D)

State Legislatures are bicameral in nature, consisting of two houses: the Legislative Assembly (lower house) and the Legislative Council (upper house).

Not all states have a Legislative Council; it is only present in a few states. The states that have a Legislative Council are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, and Karnataka.

Article 169 of the Indian Constitution allows for the abolition of a Legislative Council in a state or the creation of one in a state that does not have an upper house.

The total number of members in the Legislative Council cannot exceed one-third of the total members in the Legislative Assembly of the state.

The members of the Legislative Council have a rotational system, where one-third of the members retire after every second year.

It's important to note that the Jammu & Kashmir Legislative Council was abolished in 2019 through the J&K Reorganisation Bill, 2019.

(a) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

(b) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Youth Aspiring Minds

(c) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiration Minds

(d) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Youth of Aspiration Minds

Answer – (A)

Indigenous IT platform: SWAYAM uses an indigenous IT platform that enables hosting courses from prestigious educational institutions in India, accessible by learners at any time, from anywhere.

Free of cost courses: The courses offered on SWAYAM are available free of cost to all learners. This ensures that financial constraints do not hinder students from accessing high-quality educational content.

Collaboration and development: The SWAYAM portal has been developed through collaboration between the Ministry of Human Resource Development, NPTEL (National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning) at IIT Madras, and with contributions from Google Inc. and Persistent Systems Ltd.

Diverse course offerings: SWAYAM offers a wide range of courses, catering to students from Class 9th to post-graduation levels. This broad coverage ensures that learners of all ages can benefit from the platform.

Certification with a fee: Upon successful completion of a course, learners have the option to obtain a certificate, typically involving a nominal fee. These certificates can be valuable for future academic or professional pursuits.

Assessments and exams: SWAYAM incorporates an assessment component, where learners are evaluated through exams at the end of the course. The marks obtained in these exams contribute to the overall learning experience.

UGC Regulation: The University Grants Commission (UGC) passed the UGC Regulation 2016, which advises universities in India to identify courses that can be made available through SWAYAM, promoting collaboration between conventional universities and the online platform.

 

(a) To safeguard public property

(b) To protect and improve the natural environment

(c) To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry

(d) To promote international peace and security

Answer – (D)

Article 51 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are guidelines for the government to follow in order to promote the welfare of its citizens.

Article 51(a) of the Indian Constitution states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to:

Cherish and follow the ideals of the national struggle for freedom.

Uphold and defend the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.

To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

Promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities.

Preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.

Develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

Safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

Article 51 of the Indian Constitution also states that the State shall endeavor to secure for its citizens:

Adequate means of livelihood.

Just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.

Living wage, decent standard of living, and social security.

Education and economic opportunities.

Equality of status and of opportunity.

Protection of the environment and forests.

Promotion of international peace and security.

 

(a) James Burnham

(b) Robert Michels

(c) Gaetano Mosca

(d) Vilfredo Pareto

Answer – (A)

James Burnham was an American political theorist and author. In his book The Managerial Revolution, published in 1941, Burnham argued that the managerial class would eventually replace the capitalist class as the ruling class in all industrial societies. He believed that the managerial class, which consists of those who control the means of production and distribution, would become increasingly powerful due to its control of technology and scientific knowledge.

 

(a) The office must be public and it must be created by a Statute

(b) The office must be a substantive one

(c) The has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute in appointing such person to that office

(d) The appointment is in tune with a statutory provision

Answer – D

The writ of quo warranto cannot be issued if the appointment is in tune with a statutory provision.

The writ of quo warranto is a discretionary writ issued by a court to inquire into the legality of a person's claim to hold a public office. The writ is issued if the court finds that the person holding the office does not have the legal authority to do so.

The conditions for the issue of a writ of quo warranto are as follows:

The office must be public and it must be created by a statute.

The office must be a substantive one, not an honorary one.

There must have been a contravention of the Constitution or a statute in appointing such person to that office.

 

(a) Personal Income – Direct taxes paid by households and miscellaneous fees fines, etc.

(b) Private Income – Saving of Private Corporate Sectors – Corporation Tax

(c) Private Income – Taxes

(d) Total expenditure of Households – Income Tax – Gifts received

Answer – A

Personal disposable income (PDI) is the income that households have available for spending or saving after they have paid taxes. It is calculated as follows:

Personal Disposable Income = Personal Income - Direct Taxes

 

(a) The interplay of the forces of demand and supply

(b) Determination of the inflation rate in the economy

(c) Determination of the economy’s propensity to consume

(d) Determination of the economy’s full employment output

Answer – (A)

In a free-market economy, the price mechanism is the process by which prices are determined by the interaction of supply and demand. When demand for a good or service increases, the price of the good or service tends to rise. When demand for a good or service decreases, the price of the good or service tends to fall.

 

(a) Controlling inflation

(b) Nominal GDP estimation

(c) Measurement of savings rate

(d) Fixing of wage compensation

Answer – D

Indexation is a method of adjusting prices or wages to reflect changes in inflation. This is done to protect the purchasing power of wages or prices. Indexation is often used in labor contracts, to ensure that wages keep pace with inflation.

 

(a) zero

(b) a non-zero constant

(c) a non-zero but not a constant

(d) None of the above

Answer – B

In uniform circular motion, the car moves in a circular path at a constant speed but changes its direction continuously. Even though the car's speed remains constant, its direction is continuously changing, which means it is constantly accelerating towards the center of the circle.

The acceleration in uniform circular motion is called centripetal acceleration. It is directed towards the center of the circle and is always perpendicular to the car's velocity. This acceleration is non-zero because there is a change in the direction of the car's velocity, even though the magnitude of its speed remains constant.

 

(a) 0.085 km

(b) 0.85 km

(c) 0.17 km

(d) 17 km

Answer – (B)

The echo is heard after 5 seconds, which means the sound traveled from the source to the mountain and back to the source, taking a total of 5 seconds.

Speed of sound (v) = 340 m/s (given)

Time taken for the sound to travel to the mountain and back = 5 seconds (given)

The total distance traveled by the sound is twice the distance from the source to the mountain because it covers the distance to the mountain and the distance back to the source.

Let the distance from the source to the mountain be 'd' meters.

Total distance traveled by sound = 2d

Now, we can use the formula: Distance = Speed × Time

Distance = 2d (total distance traveled by sound)

Time = 5 seconds

Speed = 340 m/s

2d = 340 m/s × 5 seconds

2d = 1700 meters

d = 850 meters

Therefore d = 0.85 km

 

(a) 1

(b) 10

(c) 30

(d) 300

Answer – C

Energy (in kWh) = Power (in kW) × Time (in hours)

Given:

Power of the electric bulb = 100 W (watts) = 100/1000 = 0.1 kW

Time of usage per day = 10 hours

Number of days = 30 days

Energy consumed in 1 day = 0.1 kW × 10 hours = 1 kWh

Energy consumed in 30 days = 1 kWh/day × 30 days = 30 kWh

 

(a) It relates to the special provision for administration of certain areas in the States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

(b) Tribal advisory Councils are to be constituted to give advice under the Fifth Schedule.

(c) The Governor is not authorized to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by, or among members of the Scheduled Tribes.

(d) The Governors of the States in which there are scheduled areas have to submit reports to the President regarding the administration of such areas.

Answer – C

The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the control and administration of the Scheduled Areas and Schedule tribes in different states, except for the states coming under the Sixth Schedule (Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura).

Each state having a scheduled area needs to establish a Tribal Advisory Council which would advise for the advancement and welfare of the scheduled tribes.

The Governor has a special responsibility with regards to the scheduled areas, where he may be asked to submit a report to the President with regards to the administration of such areas, either annually, or whenever so required by the President.

1. Parliament may increase the area of any State.
2. Parliament may diminish the area of any State.
3. Parliament cannot alter the boundary of any State.
4. Parliament cannot alter the name of any State.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 4 only

Answer – C

Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to make changes related to the following:

Formation of New States: The Parliament can create a new state by separating a part of an existing state or by merging two or more states or parts of states or by uniting a previously existing territory to a part of any state.

Increase or Diminish Area: The Parliament can increase or diminish the area of any state.

Alteration of Boundaries: The Parliament can alter the boundaries of any state.

Alteration of Name: The Parliament can change the name of any state.

However, it is essential to note that there are two conditions associated with the exercise of these powers under Article 3:

Prior Recommendation of the President: Before introducing a bill in Parliament to effect any of the changes mentioned above, the President must give his/her prior recommendation.

Consultation with State Legislature: The President is required to refer the proposed bill to the concerned State Legislature for its views. The State Legislature must express its views within a specified time period.

 

1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendations of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in the Code of Civil Procedure, High Courts have original appellate advisory jurisdiction at the State level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (D)

Appointment of Advocate General: The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the Governor of the State under Article 165 of the Indian Constitution. The statement correctly highlights that the appointment is made by the Governor and not by the President.

Qualification: The Advocate General of a State must possess qualifications to be appointed as a judge of the High Court or should have been an advocate in the High Court for at least ten years.

Allowance for Private Practice: While serving as the Advocate General, the individual is allowed to continue private legal practice.

Tenure: The tenure of the Advocate General is not fixed, and the person holds the office during the pleasure of the Governor. In other words, the Governor can dismiss the Advocate General from the office at any time.

Highcourts:

Jurisdiction and Powers: The High Court has several types of jurisdiction and powers, including:

Original Jurisdiction: It can hear cases that are brought directly to it without going through any other court.

Writ Jurisdiction: The High Court can issue writs to protect the fundamental rights of individuals.

Appellate Jurisdiction: The High Court has the authority to hear appeals from lower courts within its jurisdiction.

Supervisory Jurisdiction: It supervises and controls the functioning of subordinate courts.

Control over Subordinate Courts: The High Court has the power of superintendence over all the courts under its jurisdiction.

Court of Record: The High Court maintains a record of its proceedings, and its decisions are cited as legal precedents.

Power of Judicial Review: The High Court can review the constitutionality and legality of laws and administrative actions.

 

(a) Unitary

(b) Federal

(c) Quasi-Federal

(d) Quasi-Unitary

Answer – C

India's Constitution is often referred to as a Quasi-Federal Constitution due to its unique characteristics, which exhibit features of both federal and unitary systems of government.

Federal Features: Some aspects of India's Constitution are federal in nature, such as:

Rigid Constitution: The Constitution can be amended, but not easily. Certain amendments require a special majority in the Parliament and ratification by a majority of the states.

Written Constitution: The Constitution is a written document that outlines the distribution of powers between the Union (Central Government) and the States.

Unitary Features: On the other hand, certain aspects of India's Constitution display unitary characteristics, including:

Integrated Judiciary: India has a single integrated judicial system that extends from the Supreme Court to the subordinate courts. The courts' authority and jurisdiction cover both Union and State matters.

All India Services: Services like the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and Indian Police Service (IPS) are common to both the Union and the States. The officers of these services can be deputed to work in different states or at the central level.

Single Citizenship: Unlike federal countries where citizens have dual citizenship (national and state), India has a single citizenship for the entire country.

Flexibility of the Constitution: Though the Constitution has some rigid features, it also provides for certain amendments that can be made by a simple majority in the Parliament.

Quasi-Federal Nature: Due to the combination of federal and unitary elements, India's Constitution is often termed as a Quasi-Federal Constitution. It establishes clear demarcations of powers between the Union and the States while also maintaining certain unitary aspects that provide for centralized control and integration.

(a) Bihar

(b) Chhattisgarh

(c) Uttarakhand

(d) Meghalaya

Answer – (B)

India shares its borders with seven countries:

Afghanistan and Pakistan to the North-West

China, Bhutan, and Nepal to the North

Myanmar and Bangladesh to the East

 

(a) Agra

(b) Bhagalpur

(c) Bhopal

(d) Kanpur

Answer – C

Bhopal is not situated on the bank of any river, Bhagalpur and Kanpur are located on the bank of the Ganges river, Agra is on the bank of the Yamuna river.

 

(a) Jharkhand

(b) Bihar

(c) Assam

(d) West Bengal

Answer – (A)

 

(a) Diurnal range of temperature is less

(b) Annual range of temperature is less

(c) Temperature is high throughout the year

(d) Extreme climatic conditions are found

Answer – (D)

The climate of South India is characterized by its mild temperatures, high humidity, and monsoon rains. The average temperature in South India ranges from 25 to 30 degrees Celsius, with the minimum temperature reaching 15 degrees Celsius in winter and the maximum temperature reaching 35 degrees Celsius in summer. The humidity levels in South India are high, ranging from 70 to 80%. The monsoon rains bring heavy rainfall to South India, which is essential for agriculture.

 

(a) In some countries, sex ratio is expressed as the number of males per thousand females.

(b) In India, sex ratio is expressed as the number of females per thousand males.

(c) At world level, sex ratio is about 102 males per 100 females.

(d) In Asia, there is a high sex ratio.

Answer – C

In certain countries, the sex ratio is presented as the number of males per thousand females, especially in regions where there are more females than males, like Russia, Latvia, and the USA. This method is utilized to emphasize the male-to-female ratio in these nations.

India represents its sex ratio as the number of females per thousand males to draw attention to the gender imbalance in the country. According to the latest available data from the 2011 census, there were 940 females for every 1,000 males in India.

Globally, the sex ratio is approximately 101 males per 100 females, indicating that there are approximately 101 males for every 100 females worldwide, as reported by the Central Intelligence Agency of the United States.

The Asian region experiences a high sex ratio, with an average of 106 males per 100 females. This imbalance is influenced by several factors, including female infanticide and sex-selective abortion.

 

(a) Amartya Sen

(b) Mahbub-ul-Haq

(c) Sukhamoy Chakravarty

(d) G.S. Chaddha

Answer – (B)

Human development encompasses the process of increasing the opportunities and freedoms available to the general population, leading to an overall improvement in their standard of living.

The central idea behind human development is the enhancement of individual freedom, which is considered essential for every human being.

The concept of human development was introduced by Mahbub-ul-Haq, along with renowned economists like Amartya Sen, who emphasized the capability approach.

In 1990, Mahbub-ul-Haq, in collaboration with Amartya Sen and other economists, published the first Human Development Report, commissioned by the United Nations Development Programme.

The Five-year plans in India were primarily designed by Sukhamoy Chakravarty, in association with P.C. Mahalanobis.

G.S. Chaddha is recognized for his notable contributions in the field of Quantum Mechanics and has authored several books on the subject.

 

(a) Equatorial region

(b) Mediterranean region

(c) Desert region

(d) Sub-humid region

Answer – (B)

The Mediterranean region is an important supplier of citrus fruits. The region's climate, which is characterized by dry and hot summers and cold and rainy winters, is well-suited for growing citrus fruits. Citrus trees require sunshine, moderate temperatures, and light winter rainfall. The Mediterranean region provides all of these conditions, making it an ideal place to grow citrus fruits.

In addition to the Mediterranean region, other places with Mediterranean climates that are also important suppliers of citrus fruits include Central Chile, California, the Western Cape of South Africa, and Western and South Australia.

(a) Those who were immersed in devotion to Vishnu

(b) Those who were devotees of Buddha

(c) Leaders who were devotees of Shiva

(d) Leaders who were devotees of Basveshwara

Answer – C

The Nayanars and Alvars were two groups of Tamil poet-saints who lived in South India during the 7th to 9th centuries. The Nayanars were devotees of Shiva, while the Alvars were devotees of Vishnu. They came from all castes, including those considered "untouchable". They preached the love of God as the path to salvation. They traveled from place to place, composing beautiful poems in praise of the deities they visited. Their poems were set to music and continue to be sung today.

.               List I                                                      List II

(Ethnic Territorial Segment)               (Related Occupational Pattern)

1. Maruta Makkal 1. Pastoralista
2. Kuravan Makkal 2. Fishing people
3. Mullai Makkal 3. Ploughmen
4. Neytal Makkal 4. Hill people

Code :

.   A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 2 4 1 3

Answer – C

According to Tamil literature, there are five main groups of people in Tamil Nadu: Marutam Makkal, Kuravan Makkal, Mullai Makkal, Neytal Makkal, and Palai Makkal.

Maruta Makkal are the ploughmen who live in villages and inhabit fertile tracts. They are known for their hard work and dedication to their land.

Kuravan Makkal are the hill people who told people their fortunes. They are known for their knowledge of the stars and the natural world.

Mullai Makkal are pastoralists, shepherds who tend to flocks of sheep and goats. They are known for their nomadic lifestyle and their close connection to nature.

Neytal Makkal are the fishing people who live in coastal villages called pattinam. They are known for their skills as fishermen and their knowledge of the sea.

Palai Makkal are the people of the dry plains. They are known for their resilience in the face of harsh conditions.

 

(a) Babur

(b) Humayun

(c) Akbar

(d) Jahangir

Answer – (A)

Babur was the first Mughal emperor of India. He was a descendant of the Timurid dynasty, which ruled over Central Asia in the 14th and 15th centuries. Babur was a skilled military leader and a talented poet. He was also a devout follower of the Naqshbandi Sufi order.

The Naqshbandi Sufi order is a branch of Islamic mysticism that emphasizes the importance of inner contemplation and spiritual development. Babur was a strong believer in the Naqshbandi teachings, and he often used his poetry to express his faith.

Babur's Naqshbandi beliefs had a significant impact on his rule as emperor. He was a tolerant ruler who allowed people of all faiths to practice their religion freely. He also abolished the jizya tax, which was a tax that was levied on non-Muslims.

 

(a) It extended the practice of communal representation.

(b) It made the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature.

(c) It is also known as the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms.

(d) It paved the way for federalism by clearly separating the responsibilities of the Centre and the Provinces.

Answer – (B)

The Government of India Act of 1919, also known as the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, was a landmark piece of legislation that introduced a number of important changes to the governance of India.

One of the most significant changes was the introduction of a system of "dyarchy" in the provinces, which meant that some subjects were to be administered by the British-appointed governor, while others would be administered by Indian ministers responsible to the provincial legislature.

This system was intended to give Indians a greater say in the running of their own affairs, but it fell short of full self-government.

Another important change was the expansion of the franchise, which gave more Indians the right to vote.

The act also created a bicameral legislature at the center, with a lower house elected by Indians and an upper house appointed by the British.

 

(a) Lala Lajpat Rai

(b) Ram Manohar Lohia

(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(d) Subash Chandra Bose

Answer – (B)

Rama Manohar Lohia was a politician and socialist activist who played a significant role in the Indian freedom struggle. He was a strong advocate of devolution of power and coined the phrase "Four-Pillar State ''.

Lohia was born in Akbarpur, Uttar Pradesh, in 1910. He graduated from Calcutta University in 1929 and then went on to study in Germany, where he received his PhD in economics.

After returning to India, Lohia joined the Indian National Congress and became a close associate of Jayaprakash Narayan. He was one of the founders of the Congress Socialist Party, which was a left-wing faction of the Congress.

Lohia was a strong critic of the British Raj and actively

 

(a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

(b) Prohibition of employment of children in factories

(c) Participation of workers in management of industries

(d) Practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business

Answer – C

Article 43A of the Indian Constitution, which is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, states that the state shall endeavor to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.

It was inserted into the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment, 1976.

 

(a) Temperature reaching 25°C or more in summer

(b) Moderate to light rainfall

(c) Medium loam soil with good drainage

(d) A growing period of at least 100 frost free days

Answer – (D)

Cotton is a warm-season crop that requires a long growing season with at least 180 frost-free days. The ideal temperature for cotton cultivation is 20-28°C with bright sunshine.

Cotton can be grown in a variety of soil types, but it prefers fertile loamy black soil with proper cracks to allow aeration. Fertile alluvial soil is also good for cotton cultivation.

 

(a) They are characterized by very little undergrowth.

(b) They have a growing period of 50 to 100 days in a year.

(c) There is low variation in annual temperature.

(d) There is high range in spatial distribution of annual precipitation.

Answer – C

The coniferous forest biome is a cold forest ecosystem that is characterized by its tall, evergreen trees. Coniferous forests can be found in a variety of climates, from the humid tropics to the snowy winters of Serbia and Canada.

The average temperature of a coniferous forest is 50 degrees Fahrenheit. However, the temperature can vary greatly depending on the location and the time of year. In the winter, temperatures can drop below -40°C, while in the summer, they can reach 10°C.

Coniferous forests receive a lot of precipitation, with an annual average of 300 to 900 mm. This precipitation is evenly distributed throughout the year, so there is no distinct wet or dry season.

The undergrowth in coniferous forests is typically very low. This is because the trees in these forests cast a lot of shade, which makes it difficult for other plants to grow.

 

.   List I (Peak)  List II (Name of Hill)

1. Anaimudi 1. Nilgiri
2. Doddabetta 2. Satpura
3. Dhupgarh 3. Aravali
4. Guru Shikhar 4. Annamalai

Code :

.   A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 4 1 2 3

(d) 4 2 1 3

Answer – C

The highest peak in the Western Ghats is Anaimudi, which is located in the Idukki district of Kerala.

The Nilgiri Hills are also part of the Western Ghats, and their highest peak is Doddabetta.

The Satpura Ranges are located in central India, and their highest peak is Dhupgarh.

The Aravalli Ranges are located in Rajasthan, and their highest peak is Guru Shikhar.

 

(a) Lakshadweep Islands

(b) Gulf of Kachchh

(c) Gulf of Mannar

(d) Gulf of Cambay

Answer – (D)

Coral reefs are not found in the Gulf of Cambay because the water is not warm, shallow, clear, sunny, and agitated enough for coral reefs to thrive. Coral reefs are marine ecosystems that are formed by the accumulation of calcium carbonate skeletons of coral polyps. Coral polyps are small animals that live in colonies and secrete the calcium carbonate skeletons that form the reef structure.

(a) Assam

(b) West Bengal

(c) Odisha

(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer – (D)

ute grows well in soils that are well-drained and fertile. These soils are often found in flood plains, where the soil is renewed every year.

Jute requires high temperatures to grow. The ideal temperature range for jute cultivation is 25-35 degrees Celsius.

The major jute producing states in India are West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha, and Meghalaya. These states account for over 90% of India's jute production.

Jute is a versatile fiber that can be used to make a variety of products. It is most commonly used to make gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets, and other artifacts.

Jute is a sustainable fiber that is biodegradable and recyclable. However, it is also a relatively expensive fiber, which has led to increased competition from synthetic fibers.

 

1. According to Mahavamsa, Ashoka turned to the Buddha’s dhamma when his nephew Nigrodha preached the doctrine to him.
2. Divyavadana ascribes Ashoka being drawn to the Buddha’s teaching to the influence of Samudra, a merchant-turned monk.
3. Dipavamsa speaks of Samudra, the 12-year-old son of a merchant, as the key figure in Ashoka’s coming under the influence of the Buddhist dhamma.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 3

Answer – C

Buddhist texts present Ashoka as a cruel and violent man before he converted to Buddhism. His conversion to Buddhism was sudden and transformative. The Mahavamsa and Dipavamsa say that Ashoka was converted to Buddhism by his nephew Nigrodha, who was only 7 years old at the time. The Divyavadana says that Ashoka was converted to Buddhism by a merchant-turned-monk named Samudra. Xuan Tsang, a Chinese traveler who visited India in the 7th century, supports the account given by the Divyavadana. The Ashokavandana mixes the two stories and says that Samudra, the 12-year-old merchant-turned-monk, was the key figure who influenced Ashoka's conversion to Buddhism.

 

(a) Bharukachchha

(b) Karur

(c) Arikamedu

(d) Anuradhapura

Answer – C

Arikamedu is an archaeological site in the southern Indian state of Puducherry.

The site has yielded a variety of artifacts, including Indo-Pacific beads, megalithic stones, and black and red ceramics.The beads are called "Pandikal" in Tamil.

They were traded through the port, which is now known as the Coromandel coast.

 

(a) Backwaters of Kerala

(b) Sunderbans

(c) Narmada

(d) Godavari

Answer – (A)

Cichlids are fish that are native to Africa and Asia. However, a small number of cichlids also live in India. The largest population of cichlids in India can be found in the backwaters of Kerala.

 

(a) Euclid

(b) Plato

(c) Eratosthenes

(d) Clio

Answer – C

Eratosthenes was a Greek mathematician, geographer, poet, astronomer, and music theorist. He is credited with coining the term "geography" in his book Geographica, which was written in the 3rd century B.C.E.

 

(a) Todar Mal

(b) Narayana Bhatta

(c) Chaitanya

(d) Rupa Goswami

Answer – (B)

In the 16th century, Narayana Bhatta Goswami, a disciple of Shri Krishna Dasa Brahmachari, authored a Sanskrit text called Vajra Bhakti. This book focuses on the Braj region in Northern India, and Narayana Bhatta Goswami had a deep attachment to Vraja Bhumi.

 

(a) solid state of matter

(b) fifth state of matter

(c) plasma

(d) state of condensed matter

Answer – (B)

Solids, liquids, and gases are the three states of matter that we are familiar with. Plasma is a fourth state of matter that is made up of ionized gas. Bose-Einstein condensate is a fifth state of matter that is formed when bosons, which are particles with integer spin, are cooled to very low temperatures.

 

(a) temperature

(b) its surface area exposed to the atmosphere

(c) its mass

(d) humidity

Answer –C

The rate of evaporation of a liquid depends on the following factors:

Temperature: The higher the temperature, the faster the liquid will evaporate.

Surface area exposed to the atmosphere: The larger the surface area, the faster the liquid will evaporate.

Humidity: The lower the humidity, the faster the liquid will evaporate.

Wind speed: The higher the wind speed, the faster the liquid will evaporate.

The mass of the liquid does not affect the rate of evaporation

 

(a) electron

(b) proton

(c) atomic nucleus

(d) neutron

Answer – (C)

Rutherford's alpha particle scattering experiment on thin gold foil was responsible for the discovery of the atomic nucleus.

In the experiment, Rutherford fired alpha particles, which are positively charged particles, at a thin gold foil. He expected the alpha particles to pass through the foil with little or no deflection. However, he observed that some of the alpha particles were deflected at large angles. This was unexpected, because the alpha particles are much more massive than the electrons that make up the atom.

 

(a) relationship between autotrophic organisms

(b) exchange of genetic material between two organisms

(c) passage of passage of food (and thus energy) from one organism to another

(d) modern entrepreneur establishment providing food outlets

Answer – C

Food chain is the passage of passage of food (and thus energy) from one organism to another.

In a food chain, each organism is linked to the next by its diet. The first organism in the chain is called the producer. Producers are organisms that can make their own food, such as plants. The next organisms in the chain are called consumers. Consumers are organisms that eat other organisms. There are two types of consumers: herbivores and carnivores. Herbivores eat plants. Carnivores eat other animals.

The food chain ends with the decomposers. Decomposers are organisms that break down dead organisms into their basic components. This releases nutrients back into the soil, which can then be used by producers to make new food.

 

(a) It is the movement of a substance against a diffusion gradient with the use of energy from respiration.

(b) It is the movement of a substance against a diffusion gradient without the use of energy.

(c) It is the movement of a substance against a diffusion gradient with the use of energy from photosynthesis.

(d) It is the movement of a substance along a diffusion gradient with the use of energy from respiration.

Answer – (A)

Active transport is the movement of a substance against a diffusion gradient with the use of energy from respiration.

Passive transport, on the other hand, is the movement of a substance along a diffusion gradient without the use of energy.

In active transport, the cell uses energy to move a substance from an area where it is less concentrated to an area where it is more concentrated. This is done by using proteins called carrier proteins. Carrier proteins have a specific binding site for the substance that they are transporting. When the substance binds to the carrier protein, the protein changes shape, which allows the substance to be transported across the cell membrane.

 

(a) plastids

(b) membranous vesicles

(c) nucleoids

(d) chromosomes

Answer – (B)

Chlorophyll in photosynthetic bacteria is associated with membranous vesicles.

Photosynthetic bacteria do not have chloroplasts, like plants and algae do. Instead, they have membranous vesicles that contain chlorophyll and other photosynthetic pigments. These vesicles are called chlorosomes.

Chlorosomes are found in the cytoplasm of the bacterial cell. They are arranged in stacks, which increases the surface area available for photosynthesis.

The chlorophyll in chlorosomes absorbs light energy, which is used to split water molecules. This releases electrons and protons, which are used to generate ATP and NADPH, the energy carriers used in photosynthesis.

Photosynthetic bacteria use the ATP and NADPH to produce carbohydrates from carbon dioxide. This process is called photosynthesis.

 

(a) A rise in the rate of economic growth due to a higher share of working age people in a population

(b) A rise in the rate of literacy due to development of educational institutions in different parts of the country

(c) A rise in the standard of living of the people due to the growth of alternative livelihood practices

(d) A rise in the gross employment ratio of a country due to government policies

Answer – (A)

Demographic dividend is a rise in the rate of economic growth due to a higher share of working age people in a population.

A demographic dividend occurs when the number of people in a country's working-age population (ages 15-64) is larger than the number of people in the non-working-age population (ages 0-14 and 65+). This demographic transition is often the result of a decline in fertility rates.

(a) Leishmania

(b) Trypanosoma

(c) Ascaris

(d) Helicobacter

Answer – (B)

Trypanosoma is the organism responsible for sleeping sickness.

Sleeping sickness is a parasitic disease that is caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma brucei. The disease is transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected tsetse fly.

 

(a) Ureters

(b) Iris of eye

(c) Bronchi of lungs

(d) Biceps

Answer – (D)

iceps do not have smooth muscles.

Smooth muscles are involuntary muscles that are found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the ureters, iris of eye, and bronchi of lungs. They are also found in the skin, where they cause the hair to stand on end.

Skeletal muscles, on the other hand, are voluntary muscles that are attached to bones. They are responsible for movement.

Biceps are skeletal muscles. They are located in the upper arm and are responsible for flexing the elbow.

 

(a) It is the time period between two cropping seasons.

(b) It is the growing of two or more crops in a random mixture.

(c) It is growing two or more crops in definite row patterns.

(d) It is growing of different crops on a piece of land in a pre-planned succession

Answer – C

 Intercropping is the growing of two or more crops in definite row patterns.

Intercropping is a multiple cropping practice that involves the cultivation of two or more crops simultaneously on the same field. The crops are planted in rows, and the rows are arranged in a way that allows the crops to benefit from each other.

 

(a) actual size of specimen / observed size

(b) observed size of specimen / actual size

(c) actual size of specimen – observed size

(d) actual size of specimen x observed size

Answer – (B)

Magnification is the ratio of the observed size of an object to its actual size.

For example, if you use a microscope to magnify an object by 100x, the object will appear to be 100 times larger than it actually is.

Here is the formula for calculating magnification:

Magnification = observed size / actual size

 

(a) Lysosomes

(b) Plastids

(c) Endoplasmic reticulum

(d) Mitochondria

Answer – (A)

Lysosomes are known as the "suicide bags" of a cell.

Lysosomes are small, membrane-bound organelles that contain digestive enzymes. These enzymes break down waste products, old organelles, and invading pathogens.

When a cell is damaged or infected, the lysosomes can rupture and release their enzymes into the cytoplasm. This can lead to the death of the cell.

 

(a) They involve simplification of complex processes

(b) They represent the whole or a part of a theory.

(c) They can be expressed only through equations

(d) They help in gaining an insight into cause and effect

Answer – C

Economic models can be expressed through equations, but they can also be expressed through graphs, diagrams, and words.

Economic models are simplified representations of economic systems. They are used to understand how economic systems work and to predict how they will behave under different conditions.

 

(a) positive

(b) negative

(c) zero

(d) infinity

Answer – (B)

The value of the slope of a normal demand curve is negative.

A normal demand curve is a curve that shows the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded of that good. As the price of a good increases, the quantity demanded of that good decreases. This is because consumers are willing to buy less of a good when the price of the good increases.

The slope of a demand curve is calculated by dividing the change in quantity demanded by the change in price. In the case of a normal demand curve, the change in quantity demanded will always be negative. This is because the quantity demanded will always decrease when the price of the good increases.

 

(a) Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Jowar in India

(b) Subsidy given to farmers to buy fertilizers

(c) Price paid by people to buy goods from ration shops

(d) Maximum Retail Price (MRP) printed on the covers/packets of goods sold in India

Answer – (A)

Minimum Support Price (MSP) is an example of a price floor.

A price floor is a legal minimum price that a good can be sold for. Price floors are usually set by the government to protect producers from low prices.

 

(a) Cost of production

(b) Price trends in international and domestic markets

(c) Cost of living index

(d) Inter-crop price parity

Answer – C

The cost of living index is not considered in determining the MSP because it is a measure of the cost of living for urban consumers. The MSP is designed to protect farmers, who are a different group of people with different needs.

 

(a) A long and healthy life

(b) Knowledge

(c) Access to banking and other financial provisions

(d) A decent standard of living

Answer – C

Access to banking and other financial provisions is not a dimension of the Human Development Index.

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education, and per capita income indicators.

 

(a) Rate of inflation

(b) Poverty index

(c) Income inequality

(d) Personal income

Answer – C

Gini Coefficient or Gini Ratio is used to measure income inequality in an economy.

Income inequality refers to the unequal distribution of income among the population of a country. It is measured by the Gini coefficient, which is a number between 0 and 1. A Gini coefficient of 0 indicates perfect equality, while a Gini coefficient of 1 indicates perfect inequality.

 

1. Particles of matter intermix on their own.
2. Particles of matter have force acting between them.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – C

Statement 1 is correct because the particles of matter are constantly moving and colliding with each other. When two particles collide, they can exchange energy and momentum. This can cause the particles to change direction or speed. If the particles have different energies or momenta, they will eventually spread out and intermix.

Statement 2 is also correct because the particles of matter have forces acting between them. These forces can be attractive or repulsive. The attractive forces between particles are called van der Waals forces. Van der Waals forces are caused by the temporary uneven distribution of electrons in the particles. The repulsive forces between particles are caused by the electrical repulsion of the particles' nuclei.

 

(a) an increase of surface area

(b) an increase in humidity

(c) a decrease in wind speed

(d) a decrease of temperature

Answer – (A)

Evaporation is the process by which a liquid changes into a gas. It occurs when the molecules at the surface of the liquid have enough energy to overcome the attractive forces of the other molecules and escape into the air.

The rate of evaporation is affected by a number of factors, including:

Surface area: The more surface area, the more molecules are exposed to the air, and the faster the evaporation rate.

Humidity: Humidity is the amount of water vapor in the air. The higher the humidity, the less water vapor can enter the air from the liquid, and the slower the evaporation rate.

Wind speed: Wind speed helps to move the water vapor away from the surface of the liquid, which exposes more molecules to the air and increases the evaporation rate.

Temperature: Temperature is the measure of the average kinetic energy of the molecules in a substance. The higher the temperature, the faster the molecules move, and the faster they can escape from the liquid.

 

(a) is vertical

(b) is horizontal

(c) has 45° positive slope

(d) has 45° negative slope

Answer – (B)

The time (X-axis) versus distance (Y-axis) graph for an object at rest is horizontal.

An object at rest means that its velocity is zero. Velocity is the rate of change of displacement, and displacement is the distance moved in a certain direction. If the velocity is zero, then the displacement will not change over time. This means that the graph of time versus distance will be a horizontal line.

In other words, the object will not move at all.

 

1. A substance can be separated into other kinds of matter by any physical process.
2. Dissolved sodium chloride can be separated from water by the physical process of evaporation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (B)

A mixture is a combination of two or more substances that are not chemically combined. The substances in a mixture can be separated by physical means, such as filtration, distillation, and chromatography.

Statement 1 is incorrect because a substance cannot be separated into other kinds of matter by any physical process. A substance is a pure form of matter that cannot be broken down into other substances by physical means.

Statement 2 is correct because dissolved sodium chloride can be separated from water by the physical process of evaporation. Evaporation is the process of a liquid changing into a gas. When water evaporates, the sodium chloride stays behind. This leaves a solid mass of sodium chloride, which can be collected.

 

(a) Elements are defined by the number of protons they possess.

(b) Isobars are atoms having the same atomic number but different mass number.

(c) The mass number of an atom is equal to the number of nucleons in its nucleus.

(d) Valency is the combining capacity of an atom.

Answer – (B)

Option 2 is  incorrect. Isobars are atoms that have the same mass number, which is the sum of protons and neutrons, but different atomic numbers, representing the number of protons. So, they have different numbers of protons. However, they have the same mass numbers because they possess the same number of neutrons.

 

(a) increases

(b) decreases

(c) reverses

(d) remains the same

Answer – (A)

f the speed of a moving magnet inside a coil increases, the electric current in the coil increases.

This is because the magnetic field produced by the magnet cuts across the coil more quickly, which induces a larger current in the coil.

 

(a) 375

(b) 750

(C) 1000

(d) 2000

Answer – C

The frequency of a note that is one octave higher than 500 Hz is 1000 Hz.

An octave is a musical interval between two notes with a frequency ratio of 2:1. In other words, an octave higher than a note means that the frequency of the note is twice the frequency of the original note.

In this case, the original note has a frequency of 500 Hz. So, the frequency of the note that is one octave higher is 2*500 = 1000 Hz.

 

1. The President tenders his resignation to the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Vice-President tenders his resignation to the President of India.
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is removed from his office in the like manner as the President of India.
4. A Judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer – (D)

Article 148 of the Indian Constitution establishes the position of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. The President appoints the Comptroller and Auditor-General through a warrant under his hand and seal, and the removal from office follows a process similar to that of a Judge of the Supreme Court. Therefore, statement 3 is false.

Statement 4 is also inaccurate, as Article 124 of the Indian Constitution allows a Judge of the Supreme Court to resign from their office by submitting a written resignation to the President.

 

(a) creation of new States

(b) declaring a war

(c) financial emergency

(d) authorizing Parliament to legislate on subject in the State List

Answer – (D)

Article 249 of the Indian Constitution gives the Rajya Sabha the exclusive power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.

 

(a) Soil erosion

(b) Soil deposition

(c) Soil getting very deficient in plant nutrients

(d) Soil getting enriched with plant nutrients

Answer – C

The term soil impoverishment relates to soil getting very deficient in plant nutrients.

Soil impoverishment is a serious problem that can lead to decreased crop yields and food insecurity.

 

(a) Migration, Reaction, Stabilization and Nudation

(b) Migration, Stabilization, Reaction and Nudation

(c) Nudation, Migration, Reaction and Stabilization

(d) Reaction, Migration, Stabilization and Nudation

Answer – C

Nudation: This is the initial stage of succession, when the habitat is bare or nearly bare.

Migration: This is the stage when pioneer species colonize the habitat. Pioneer species are those that can survive in harsh conditions.

Acclimatization: This is the stage when the pioneer species begin to adapt to the environment.

Competition: This is the stage when the pioneer species begin to compete with each other for resources.

Stabilization: This is the stage when the community reaches a state of equilibrium.

 

103. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

.  List I                    List II

. (Soil type) (Major characteristic)

1. Oxisols 1. Very rich in organic matter
2. Vertisols 2. Soil lacking horizons
3. Histosols 3. Very old and highly weathered
4. Entisols 4. Rich in clay content and highly basic

Code:

.   A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 2 4 1 3

Answer – (B)

Oxisols: These are mature and highly weathered soils, characterized by a heavily oxidized subsurface horizon. The main processes involved in their formation are leaching and weathering. Oxisols are low in organic matter and have a poor ability to retain nutrients. They are found in tropical and subtropical regions.

Vertisols: These soils have a high clay content and contain minimal organic matter. They exhibit unique cracking patterns that facilitate proper aeration. Additionally, they are alkaline in nature and are well-suited for cultivating cotton. Vertisols are found in semi-arid and sub-humid regions.

Histosols: These soils are remarkably rich in organic matter, comprising about 20-30% of their composition. They have a thickness of about 40 cm. Histosols are found in wetlands and other areas that are constantly waterlogged.

Entisols: These soils lack any well-defined horizons except for the A horizon. They remain largely unaltered from their parent rock. Entisols are found in areas that have been recently exposed to erosion or deposition

 

(a) Urals

(b) Caucasus

(c) Carpathians

(d) Balkan mountains

Answer – (B)

The Caucasus Mountains are a mountain range that stretches across southwest Asia and Eastern Europe. They are located between the Black Sea to the west and the Caspian Sea to the east. The highest peak in the Caucasus Mountains is Mount Elbrus, which is located in Russia and has an elevation of 5,642 meters (18,510 feet).

 

(a) Kalbaisakhi

(b) Mango showers

(c) Loo

(d) Cherry blossoms

Answer – (D)

Rains caused by thunderstorms during the hot weather season (mid-March to mid-June) in Karnataka are called Cherry blossoms.

 

(a) Chilika

(b) Loktak

(c) Dal

(d) Wular

Answer – (D)

The largest freshwater lake in India is Wular Lake. It is located in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir.

Direction : The following 4 (four) items consist of two statements, Statement and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below :

Code:

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

107. Statement I: The Greek travelers were most impressed by the fertility of India’s soil and the energy and ability of her cultivators.

Statement II: Ancient India knew the use of manure.

Answer – (B)

The ancient Indian villagers used wooden ploughs that were drawn by oxen. This has been verified by the excavation of various Harappan sites. The Harappan people were skilled farmers and they knew how to make proper use of manure to increase cultivation.

The staple food crops of ancient India included wheat and barley. These crops were grown in both irrigated and drier lands. Rice was also cultivated in irrigated lands, while millet was cultivated in drier lands.

 

108. Statement I: Non-cooperation began in Punjab with the student movement inspired by Lala Lajpat Rai in January 1921.

Statement II : The Sikh dominated central Punjab countryside was stirred by the powerful Akali upsurge.

Answer – (B)

The Non-Cooperation Movement began in Punjab in January 1921, with a student walk-out in Lahore that was inspired by Lala Lajpat Rai.

The movement was relatively weak in the cities of Punjab, but it was more successful in the countryside, especially in the Sikh-dominated areas.

The Akali upsurge, which was a protest against the corrupt management of Sikh shrines, was a major factor in the success of the Non-Cooperation Movement in Punjab.

 

109. Statement I: The Oudh Kisan Sabha established in 1920 failed to bring under its wing any Kisan Sabhas

Statement II : The Oudh Kisan Sabha asked the Kisans to refuse till bedakhli land, not to offer hari and begar.

Answer – (D)

The peasant movement in Awadh got associated with the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by the Congress in 1920.

However, there was a difference between the Non-Cooperators and those who preferred constitutional agitation. This led to the formation of an alternative Oudh Kisan Sabha in Pratapgarh in October 1920.

The Oudh Kisan Sabha united all 330 grassroots Kisan Sabhas of Awadh under its wings.

The Sabha asked the Kisans to refuse to till land that had been illegally taken away from them (bedakhli land) and not to offer unpaid labour (hari and begar).

They also asked the Kisans to boycott those who did not accept these conditions and to resolve their disputes through panchayats.

 

110. Statement I: The United Provinces during Non-Cooperation became one of the strongest bases of the Congress.

Statement II:The literary outcrop of Non-Cooperation in Bengal was quite meagre compared to the days of the Swadeshi agitation.

Answer – (B)

The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched at the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920.

The movement was a response to the Rowlatt Bills, the Punjab wrongs, and the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms.

The movement was led by Mahatma Gandhi and was based on the principles of non-violence and civil disobedience.

The movement was successful in bringing about a number of reforms, including the release of political prisoners and the reduction of censorship.

However, the movement was eventually called off by Gandhi after a series of violent incidents.

 

(a) Those who immersed in devotion to Vishnu

(b) Devotees of Shiva

(c) Those who worshiped abstract form of God

(d) Devotees of Shakti

Answer – (A)

The Nayanars and Alvars were two groups of Tamil poet-saints who led religious movements in South India during the 7th and 8th centuries.

The Nayanars were devotees of Shiva, while the Alvars were devotees of Vishnu.

 

(a) Hydrogen

(b) Sulphur

(c) Phosphorus

(d) Helium

Answer – (D)

Monatomic elements are elements that are stable as single atoms,

Characteristics of monatomic elements:

They are stable as single atoms.

They have a stable octet of valence electrons.

They are gases at room temperature and pressure.

They are unreactive.

They are colorless, odorless, and tasteless.

 

(a) forming a three-dimensional structure

(b) in the same plane giving a hexagonal array

(c) in the same plane giving a square array

(d) in the same plane giving a pentagonal array

Answer – (B)

Graphite is a crystalline form of carbon that is made up of sheets of carbon atoms that are arranged in a hexagonal lattice. Each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms in the same plane, forming a hexagonal ring. The sheets of carbon atoms are held together by weak van der Waals forces.

Graphite is a good conductor of heat and electricity because the electrons in the carbon atoms are delocalized, meaning that they are not confined to a single atom. This allows the electrons to move freely through the material.

 

(a) refract light

(b) scatter light

(c) diffract light

(d) polarize light

Answer – (B)

The cloudiness observed in a soap solution used for cleaning purposes is primarily due to the presence of soap micelles, which can scatter light. When light passes through a cloudy or turbid medium like the soap solution, it encounters particles or structures (such as soap micelles) that are of different sizes and refractive indices. These particles scatter the light in various directions, causing the solution to appear cloudy or opaque. This phenomenon is known as the Tyndall effect, and it is commonly observed in colloidal solutions, emulsions, and suspensions.

 

(a) good absorbers of water

(b) good conveyors of heat

(c) good radiators of heat

(d) good absorbers of heat

Answer – (A)

Cotton clothes are made from a natural fiber that absorbs water well. When cotton clothes absorb water, they form a layer of water molecules on the surface of the cloth. This layer of water molecules helps to insulate the body and prevent heat from escaping.

 

(a) radio-isotopes

(b) colours from a dye

(c) pigments from a natural colour

(d) drugs from blood

Answer – (A)

Radioisotopes cannot be separated by chromatography.

Chromatography is a physical method of separation that is used to separate mixtures of molecules based on their different properties. The most common type of chromatography is liquid chromatography, which uses a liquid solvent to separate the molecules. The molecules are carried through a column by the solvent, and they are separated based on their different affinities for the column material.

 

“Atomic number of an element is a more fundamental property than its atomic mass.” Who among the following scientists has made the above statement ?

(a) Dmitri Mendeleev

(b) Henry Moseley

(c) J. J. Thomson

(d) Ernest Rutherford

Answer – (B)

Henry Moseley was an English physicist who discovered the relationship between atomic number and X-ray spectra in 1913. This discovery helped to establish the modern periodic table of the elements, which is based on atomic number rather than atomic mass.

Moseley's law states that the square root of the frequency of the X-ray line emitted by an element is proportional to the atomic number of the element. This law was a major breakthrough in the field of atomic physics and helped to explain the periodic behavior of the elements.

 

(a) Methanoic acid

(b) Ascorbic acid

(c) Lactic acid

(d) Tartaric acid

Answer – (B)

Ascorbic acid is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for human health. It is a cofactor for many enzymes involved in the production of collagen, a protein that is important for the structure of skin, bones, and blood vessels. Ascorbic acid also helps to protect cells from damage by free radicals.

Methanoic acid: A weak acid that is used in industry as a cleaning agent and disinfectant. It is also found in some insects and plants as a defense mechanism.

Lactic acid: A weak acid that is produced by bacteria during fermentation. It is also produced in the muscles during exercise. Lactic acid can cause muscle soreness, but it is also important for energy production.

Tartaric acid: A weak acid that is found in grapes, wine, and other fruits. It is also used as a preservative and flavoring agent.

 

(a) Free ribosomes

(b) Mitochondria

(c) Nucleolus

(a) Cell wall

Answer – (D)

Animal cells and plant cells have many similarities, but they also have some important differences. One of the most important differences is that plant cells have a cell wall around their cell membrane, while animal cells do not.

 

(a) Pteridophyta

(b) Bryophyta

(c) Gymnosperms

(d) Angiosperms

Answer – (A)

Pteridophytes are vascular plants that do not have flowers or seeds. They reproduce by spores, which are produced in specialized structures called sporangia. Pteridophytes are the most primitive group of vascular plants. They are found in a wide variety of habitats, including forests, deserts, and wetlands.

Bryophytes:Non-vascular plants that do not have true roots, stems, or leaves. They reproduce by spores. Bryophytes are found in moist habitats, such as swamps and bogs.

Gymnosperms:Vascular plants that have seeds, but do not have flowers. Gymnosperms reproduce by cones. Gymnosperms are found in a wide variety of habitats, including forests, deserts, and wetlands.

Angiosperms:Vascular plants that have flowers and seeds. Angiosperms are the most diverse group of plants and are found in all habitats on Earth.