INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (06/08/2024)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily: Governor and Heatwaves matter for the UPSC Exam? Why are subjects like MSME and the CAR T Cell therapy important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for August 6, 2024

 

🚨 UPSC EXAM NOTES presents the July edition of our comprehensive monthly guide. Access it  to enhance your preparation. We value your input - share your thoughts and recommendations in the comments section or via email at Support@upscexamnotes.com 🚨

Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on August 06, 2024

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

 

Some Governors playing a role where they shouldn’t

For Preliminary Examination: Current events of National and International Importance

For Mains Examination: GS II -Indian Polity and Governance

 

Context: 

Supreme Court judge Justice B V Nagarathna on Saturday said governors in India were playing a role where they ought not to and were inactive when they should be playing an active role, calling the cases against governors before the top court a “sad story”

 

Read about:

Role of a Governor in Public Universities

Governors and their discretion powers

Key takeaways:

 In India, the Governor is the constitutional head of each state. The Governor's role and responsibilities are defined in Part VI of the Indian Constitution, which outlines the governance structure at the state level.

Here are the key functions and roles of the Governor in Indian states:

 

  • Symbolic Head: Represents the unity and integrity of the state and acts as a link between the Union and the state governments.
  • Appointment: Appointed by the President of India for a term of five years, though they can be removed earlier by the President or may resign
  • Summoning and Proroguing: Has the power to summon and prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
  • Assent to Bills: Can give assent to bills passed by the state legislature, withhold assent, or reserve bills for the consideration of the President.
  • Ordinances: Can promulgate ordinances when the legislature is not in session, which must be ratified by the legislature within six weeks of reassembly.
  • Budget: Ensures the presentation of the annual financial statement (budget) to the state legislature.
  • Chief Executive: Executes decisions taken by the state government and ensures they are in line with the Constitution.
  • Appointments: Appoints the Chief Minister and, on their advice, other members of the Council of Ministers. Also appoints the Advocate General and members of the State Public Service Commission.
  • Administration: Oversees the administration of the state, especially during emergencies or when there is a breakdown of constitutional machinery.

Federalism in India: India is a federal union of states with a strong central government. The Constitution of India establishes a system of dual polity, dividing powers between the Union (central) government and the state governments.

Key features include:

  1. Division of powers between center and states
  2. Written constitution as the supreme law
  3. Bicameral legislature at the central level
  4. Independent judiciary

Role of Governors: Governors serve as the constitutional heads of states in India. Their main functions include:

  1. Appointing the Chief Minister and other ministers
  2. Summoning and dissolving the state legislative assembly
  3. Giving assent to bills passed by the state legislature
  4. Recommending President's Rule when state machinery fails
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Consider the following statements: ( UPSC 2018)

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only         

B. 2 only           

C. Both 1 and 2             

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (C)
  • No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.

    • This statement is correct. Article 361 of the Indian Constitution provides immunity to the President and Governors from being answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of their powers and duties. Additionally, no criminal proceedings can be instituted or continued against them during their term of office.
  • The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

    • This statement is correct. Article 158(3) of the Indian Constitution ensures that the emoluments and allowances of the Governor cannot be diminished during their term of office.
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current Events of National and International Importance
For Mains Examination:  GS II - Indian Polity & Governance
 
 
Context:

SAYING THAT people, sometimes, get so “fed up” with long-drawn court proceedings that they seek settlement outside court, Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud on Saturday expressed concern over how the “process” becomes “the punishment”.In this context, he highlighted the role of Lok Adalats as alternative dispute redressal mechanisms. The CJI was speaking at the commemoration of the special Lok Adalat week at the Supreme Court.

 

Read about:

 

What is Lokadalat?

Significance of Lok Adalat

 

Key takeaways:

Lok Adalat, which means "People's Court," is an alternative dispute resolution mechanism in India. It is a forum where cases or disputes pending in the court of law or at the pre-litigation stage are settled amicably. Lok Adalats are constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, and aim to provide a quick, cost-effective, and amicable resolution of disputes.

Features of Lok Adalat

  • Voluntary Participation: Both parties involved in the dispute must agree to the settlement.
  • Non-Adversarial System: It promotes a conciliatory and non-adversarial approach to resolving disputes.
  • Binding Decisions: The decisions of the Lok Adalat are binding on the parties and have the same status as a decree of a civil court.
  • No Appeal: No appeal lies against the award of the Lok Adalat.
  • Free of Cost: The process is free, with no court fees involved.
  • Simplified Procedures: Lok Adalats do not adhere strictly to procedural laws and the Indian Evidence Act.

Types of Cases Handled by Lok Adalat

  • Civil cases, including matrimonial disputes.
  • Compoundable criminal cases.
  • Disputes relating to public utilities like telephone, electricity, and water bills.
  • Cases under the Motor Vehicles Act.
  • Cases related to land acquisition.

Significance of Lok Adalats

  • Reduction in Pendency: Helps reduce the burden on the judiciary by resolving a large number of pending cases quickly and efficiently.
  • Accessibility: Makes justice accessible to the weaker sections of society who may not be able to afford traditional litigation.
  • Cost-Effective: Provides a cost-effective method of dispute resolution, as no court fees are required and there are minimal procedural costs.
  • Speedy Justice: Ensures speedy resolution of disputes, reducing the time and resources spent on prolonged litigation.
  • Finality of Decisions: Decisions are final and binding, reducing the chances of prolonged litigation through appeals.
  • Harmonious Resolution: Promotes a more harmonious resolution of disputes by encouraging compromise and mutual understanding.
  • Legal Awareness: Helps in increasing legal awareness among the masses, as Lok Adalats often educate parties about their legal rights and duties.

 

Read Also:

What is Alternative Dispute Redressal (ADR)?

 

Follow Up Question

1.With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC CSE 2010)

(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court

(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature

(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person

(d) None of the statements given above is correct

Answer (d)
 

(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court

  • This statement is incorrect because Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle both pre-litigative matters and those that are already pending before any court.

(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature

  • This statement is incorrect because Lok Adalats can deal with both civil matters and certain compoundable criminal cases.

(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person

  • This statement is incorrect because Lok Adalats can consist of judicial officers, lawyers, and other persons of repute or members from the community as decided by the organizing committee.
 

 

 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of National and International Importance
 
For Mains Examination: GSII & GS III - Science &technology, Policy stability between two countries
 
 
Context:
 
As Taiwanese businesses and government officials take a cautious approach towards India’s semiconductor ambitions, New Delhi has mobilised officials to the island territory bearing a key message: an explicit assurance of policy stability. The Indian Express has learnt that senior officials from the IT Ministry have met with industry executives in Taipei and government officials, to assure them of policy stability, especially with regard to changes in rules governing imports and tweaks in customs duties on inputs.
 
Read about:
 
What is a Semiconductor?
Significance of the Semiconductor industry
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • New Delhi's engagement with Taiwanese officials is driven by a significant reason: Taiwan is a hub for leading chipmakers, including Taiwan Semiconductor Manufacturing Company (TSMC), which serves major clients like Apple and Nvidia, and United Microelectronics Corporation (UMC).
  • Over 90% of the world's most advanced chips, essential for a wide range of electronic devices such as smartphones, car components, data centers, fighter jets, and AI technologies, are produced in Taiwan.
  • Integrated circuits, or chips, form the core of modern semiconductors. These consist of tiny electronic circuits made up of transistors, diodes, capacitors, resistors, and their interconnections, all placed on a thin silicon wafer.
  • Semiconductor manufacturing plants, known as fabs, are specialized facilities that imprint these intricate circuits onto silicon wafers based on chip designs. The fabrication process is complex, involving sterile cleanrooms to avoid contamination.
  • This process can involve 500 to 1,500 steps and requires various inputs, including silicon wafers, commodity and specialty chemicals, and essential infrastructure like clean water and a reliable power supply.
  • India's chip incentive plans aim to enhance the entire semiconductor ecosystem, focusing on packaging, assembly, and testing facilities (ATMP and OSAT units), as well as full-scale foundries for chip manufacturing
Read also:
 
What is Semiconductor Fabrication?
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Which of the following statements about semiconductor fabrication in India are correct?

  1. India launched its "Semiconductor Mission" in December 2021.
  2. The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme includes incentives for semiconductor manufacturing.
  3. India is currently self-sufficient in semiconductor chip production.
  4. The first semiconductor fabrication plant in India was established in Gujarat in 2023.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 2, and 4 only

d) All of the above

Answer (a)
 
  • Correct. India launched its "Semiconductor Mission" in December 2021 as part of its efforts to promote semiconductor and display manufacturing in the country.
  • Correct. The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme includes incentives for semiconductor manufacturing to boost domestic production and reduce dependency on imports.
  • Incorrect. India is not self-sufficient in semiconductor chip production. In fact, the country heavily relies on imports for its semiconductor needs, which is one of the reasons for launching the Semiconductor Mission.
  • Incorrect. As of 2023, India does not have a fully operational semiconductor fabrication plant. While there are plans and proposals, no such plant has been established yet.
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international Importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Governance, Infrastructure Projects
 
 
Context:
 
The Central government’s Rs 72,000 cr-Great Nicobar Island (GNI) infrastructure project will involve the construction of an airport for civilian and defence use, an international container transshipment terminal, and a township. However, it has also faced legal challenges in the National Green Tribunal (NGT) and the Calcutta High Court, which has jurisdiction over the Andaman and Nicobar Islands
 
Read about: 
 
 
What is the Great Nicobar Island Project?
What ia Great Nicobar Project?
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • In 2022, environmental activist Ashish Kothari and the Mumbai-based non-profit Conservation Action Trust (CAT) contested the environmental and Coastal Regulation Zone clearances given to the GNI project.
  • CAT also filed a separate appeal challenging the forest clearance in addition to their submission before the eastern bench of the NGT.
  • The Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change (MoEFCC) issues these clearances to authorize construction activities. The appeals to the NGT aimed to have these clearances revoked.
  • The appeals argued on similar grounds, highlighting the potential for irreversible harm to biodiversity, insufficient environmental impact assessments, and lack of transparency in the clearance process. They emphasized that GNI is a Biosphere Reserve with diverse ecosystems, including wet evergreen forests.
  • Concerns were also raised about the inadequate evaluation of the project's impact on the Shompen and Nicobarese tribal communities and the failure to follow proper procedures in granting statutory clearances.
  • The Shompens are hunter-gatherers, while the Nicobarese people's ancestral lands are likely to be affected by the project.
  • Both appeals clarified that their challenge was not against defense projects but against permissions for ports and townships in restricted areas, such as the Island Coastal Regulation Zone (ICRZ) – IA area, which includes ecologically sensitive areas and features critical to maintaining coastal integrity
 
Read also:
 
Environmental Concerns regarding Great Nicobar Project
 
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’? (UPSC CSE 2014)

(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Nicobar and Sumatra
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(d) Sumatra and Java

Answer (a)
 

The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. Here are some key points about this:

  • Location: The Ten Degree Channel is located at approximately 10° north latitude, hence its name.
  • Separation: It forms a wide separation between the two Indian island groups - the Andaman Islands to the north and the Nicobar Islands to the south.
  • Width: The channel is about 150 km wide.
  • Depth: It's notably deep, with depths reaching over 1,000 meters in some parts.
  • Significance: The channel is an important shipping route and also plays a role in oceanographic studies.
  • Geopolitical importance: It's strategically important for India, as it provides a crucial maritime route and is part of India's exclusive economic zone.

The other options are incorrect:

(b) Nicobar and Sumatra are separated by the Great Channel. (c) Maldives and Lakshadweep are both in the Arabian Sea, not separated by the Ten Degree Channel. (d) Sumatra and Java are Indonesian islands separated by the Sunda Strait

 
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of National and International Importance
For Mains Examination: GS III - Micro Small Medium Enterprises
 
Context:
 
To benefit women entrepreneurs, the Public Procurement Policy was amended in 2018, mandating Central Ministries/Departments/Undertaking to procure at least 3% of their annual procurement from women-owned micro and small enterprises
 
Read about:
 
What is an MSME?
Significance of MSME
 
Key takeaways:
 

The Government has implemented several measures to enhance the involvement of women in MSMEs, including:

  • In 2018, the Public Procurement Policy was revised to require Central Ministries, Departments, and Undertakings to source at least 3% of their annual procurement from women-owned micro and small enterprises.
  • The Udyam Registration Portal, launched on July 1, 2020, is an entirely online, paperless system based on self-declaration. Individuals with PAN can register on Udyam to qualify for Priority Sector Lending (PSL) and access various Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (M/o MSME) schemes. Regular special drives are held to encourage the registration of women-owned MSMEs on this portal.
  • For Informal Micro Enterprises (IMEs) without PAN and exempt from GST, the Udyam Assist Platform (UAP) was introduced on January 11, 2023. Over 63% of the IMEs registered on UAP are owned by women.
  • To assist women entrepreneurs, two specific provisions have been added under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Micro and Small Enterprises
 
MSME Sector
 
 
Category Investment Limit Annual Turnover Limit Characteristics
Micro Enterprises Up to ₹1 crore in plant and machinery or equipment Up to ₹5 crore Small-scale operations, limited capital investment, small workforce
Small Enterprises More than ₹1 crore but up to ₹10 crore in plant and machinery or equipment More than ₹5 crore but up to ₹50 crore Medium-sized operations with larger scale compared to micro enterprises, but still relatively small.
Medium Enterprises More than ₹10 crore but up to ₹50 crore in plant and machinery or equipment More than ₹50 crore but up to ₹250 crore Larger businesses with substantial investments and turnover, having a significant impact on the economy.
 
 
Follow Up Question
 
 
1.Consider the following statements with reference to India: (UPSC 2023)
1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (B)
 
  • Statement 1: The 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006' defines medium enterprises as those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹10 crore and ₹50 crore, not ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

  • Statement 2: While all bank loans to Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs) qualify under the priority sector, loans to Medium Enterprises do not automatically qualify under the priority sector. Only loans to Micro and Small Enterprises are categorized as priority sector lending, while Medium Enterprises are not covered under this priority sector classification. Thus, this statement is also incorrect

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
For Mains Examination: GS III - Science & technology
 
Context:
CAR-T cell therapy is seen as a revolutionary therapy in treating cancer. How is it different from other cancer treatments?
 
Key takeaways:
 

CAR-T cell therapy, or chimeric antigen receptor T-cell therapy, is a type of cancer treatment that harnesses the body’s own immune system to combat cancer. The immune system is responsible for defending the body against infections and diseases, with white blood cells (WBCs) playing a crucial role.

WBCs, or leukocytes, are produced in the bone marrow and travel through the blood and lymphatic system. The main types of WBCs include:

  • Neutrophils: These cells engulf and destroy pathogens.
  • Lymphocytes: They target specific invaders and retain memory of previous infections.
  • Monocytes: These cells transform into macrophages and dendritic cells, which ingest pathogens and present antigens.
  • Eosinophils: They release enzymes and toxic proteins to kill parasites and modulate inflammation.
  • Basophils: They release histamine and other chemicals that contribute to inflammation and allergic reactions. Together, WBCs work to identify, attack, and eliminate harmful invaders, protecting the body.

How the Immune System Functions

The immune system defends the body from infections through two primary mechanisms: innate and adaptive immunity. Innate immunity provides immediate, non-specific protection through barriers like the skin and mucous membranes, as well as phagocytic cells such as neutrophils and macrophages, and inflammatory responses.

Adaptive immunity, on the other hand, involves lymphocytes—a type of white blood cell. This response is managed by two main classes of lymphocytes: B-cells and T-cells. B-cells, which develop and mature in the bone marrow, produce antibodies that target specific pathogens. T-cells, which originate in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus, are responsible for destroying infected cells.

When a pathogen enters the body, the immune system identifies its antigens, activates immune cells, and eliminates the threat, while also creating memory cells for quicker responses to future infections. This process ensures a swift and targeted defense against harmful antigens, maintaining overall health and preventing disease.

What are T-Cells?

T-cells are central to CAR-T cell therapy due to their critical role in the immune response to both pathogens and cancerous cells. These cells can be genetically modified to express chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) that are specifically designed to recognize and bind to antigens on cancer cells. Once attached, these engineered T-cells can effectively kill the cancer cells.

While other immune cells like B-cells and natural killer cells are involved in immunity, they do not possess the same level of adaptability and memory as T-cells, which makes T-cells more suitable for the precise and sustained action required in CAR-T cell therapy

 

Follow Up Question

1.Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?(UPSC CSE 2022)

(a) They protect the environmental allergens. body
(b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
(c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
(d) They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens.

 

Answer (d)
 
B cells and T cells are crucial components of the adaptive immune system. They specifically target and respond to pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances that can cause diseases. B cells are responsible for producing antibodies that bind to specific antigens on pathogens, while T cells can directly kill infected cells or help other immune cells. Thus, their primary role is to protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens
 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
Polity Indian Constitution Constitutional bodies
History  Ancient History Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC)
Economy NCERT Class 9 People as a Resource
Geography NCERT Class 9 Physical Features of India
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 
 
 

Share to Social